the patients bill of rights covers which of the following areas
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. Which of the following areas does the Patient’s Bill of Rights cover?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Patient’s Bill of Rights encompasses various areas to protect patients' rights. These include ensuring information disclosure, allowing patients to choose their healthcare providers, and giving them options to select plans that suit their needs. Therefore, all the choices - information disclosure, choice of providers, and choice of plans - are covered under the Patient’s Bill of Rights. The option 'Best payment options' is not relevant to the areas typically addressed by the Patient’s Bill of Rights.

2. The PN and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The PN determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the PN give the UAP first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. When a client is unresponsive, it could indicate a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Ensuring emergency help is on the way is the priority to address the potentially critical situation. Feeling for a carotid pulse, bringing a glucometer, or checking the blood pressure are important assessments but should come after taking steps to secure immediate assistance.

3. An older male client with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to an extended care facility. Which intervention should the PN include in the client's nursing care plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease in an extended care facility is to plan to have the same nursing staff provide care whenever possible. Consistency in caregivers helps reduce confusion and anxiety in clients with Alzheimer’s disease, promoting a stable and supportive environment for the client. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on activities rather than the consistency of caregivers. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests isolating the client, which can lead to increased confusion and distress. Choice D is incorrect as introducing the client to new people immediately can be overwhelming and may exacerbate their symptoms.

4. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.

5. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

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