Nursing Elites

1. Thirty minutes after receiving IV morphine, a postoperative client continues to rate pain as 7 on a 10-point scale. Which action should the PN implement first?

• A. Call healthcare provider to request a different analgesic
• B. Determine when morphine can be given again
• C. Implement complementary pain relief methods
• D. Observe dressing to determine the presence of bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the PN to implement first is to implement complementary pain relief methods. This includes repositioning the client, applying heat or cold packs, or using relaxation techniques. These strategies can provide additional pain relief before the next dose of medication is due or before seeking further instructions from the healthcare provider. Calling the healthcare provider immediately to request a different analgesic (Choice A) may not be necessary at this moment since other non-pharmacological methods can be attempted first. Determining when morphine can be given again (Choice B) is important but addressing the client's immediate pain relief takes precedence. Observing the dressing for bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when the client is experiencing unrelieved pain.

2. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?

• A. Glucose should be taken if I have a fruity breath odor.
• B. Glucose should be taken if I am urinating more than usual.
• C. Glucose should be taken if I have blurred vision.
• D. Glucose should be taken if I develop shakiness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.

3. When caring for a child with sickle cell disease, the PN expects that the child will most likely describe which symptom when experiencing a sickle cell crisis?

• A. Decreased hemoglobin
• B. Joint pain
• C. Fatigue
• D. Infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a sickle cell crisis, a child with sickle cell disease is most likely to describe joint pain. Sickle cell disease leads to the blockage of blood flow by sickled red blood cells, causing ischemia and pain, often felt in the joints and other body parts. Fatigue (choice C) is a nonspecific symptom that can occur in various conditions but is not a characteristic symptom of a sickle cell crisis. While decreased hemoglobin (choice A) can be observed in sickle cell disease, it is not a symptom typically described by a child during a sickle cell crisis. Infection (choice D) can trigger a sickle cell crisis but is not the symptom most likely to be described by the child during the crisis.

4. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?

• A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
• B. Serum Calcium
• C. Serum Creatinine
• D. WBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.

5. A nurse is caring for a 60-year-old man who is scheduled to have coronary bypass surgery in the morning. He tells the nurse that he is afraid that he will die and he is scared of the surgery. What is the best reply for this nurse to give him?

• A. There is no reason to be scared. My father had this surgery, and now he’s playing tennis with his friends almost every day.
• B. I would be scared too. It’s a natural thing to feel. Don’t worry. Everything will be alright.
• C. You’re scared?
• D. The doctor has performed hundreds of successful bypass surgeries. I have a lot of faith in him.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best reply for the nurse to give the patient is option C: 'You’re scared?' This response reflects empathy and understanding, acknowledging the patient's feelings of fear. By directly addressing the patient's emotions, the nurse encourages further expression of concerns, which is crucial in providing emotional support. Choices A and D may come off as dismissive of the patient's feelings by downplaying his fear or shifting the focus to others' experiences. Choice B, although acknowledging the patient's fear, does not actively engage with the patient's emotions or encourage further discussion.

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