Nursing Elites

1. During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?

• A. Record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse
• B. Ask the family members to visit more often to stimulate the patient
• C. Motivate the client by offering favorite foods as a prize
• D. Withhold any medications that may cause side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.

2. You are caring for a patient who just gave birth to a 6 lb. 13 oz. baby boy. The infant gave out a lusty cry, had a pink coloration all over his body, had flexed arms and legs, cried when stimulated, and had a pulse rate of 94. What Apgar score would you expect for this baby?

• A. 10
• B. 8
• C. 7
• D. 9

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method used to quickly assess the health of newborns. In this scenario, the baby would receive 2 points for color, reflex irritability, and muscle tone, but only 1 point for a pulse rate of 94, resulting in an Apgar score of 9. An Apgar score of 9 indicates that the baby is in good health overall. Choice A (10) is incorrect because a pulse rate of 94 would only score 1 point. Choices B (8) and C (7) are incorrect as the given criteria would lead to a higher score, indicating the baby's good health.

3. A client who is post-operative from a bowel resection is experiencing abdominal distention and pain. The nurse notices the client has not passed gas or had a bowel movement. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client's bowel sounds.
• B. The client's fluid intake.
• C. The client's pain level.
• D. The client's surgical incision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing bowel sounds is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the client's gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly. Absent or hypoactive bowel sounds can indicate an ileus, a common post-operative complication. Assessing fluid intake (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing bowel sounds. Pain assessment (Choice C) is essential but addressing the physiological issue should take precedence. Checking the surgical incision (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority when the client is experiencing abdominal distention and potential gastrointestinal complications.

4. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the nurse observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Loosen the dressing of the fistula
• B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
• C. Document that the fistula is intact
• D. Apply gentle pressure over the site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document that the fistula is intact. The palpable buzzing sensation (known as a thrill) over the AV fistula indicates proper functioning. It is essential for the nurse to document this finding to ensure ongoing monitoring of the fistula's status. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication to loosen the dressing. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not associated with the palpable buzzing sensation of a thrill. Choice D is incorrect as applying pressure over the site is not necessary for this situation.

5. A homeless male client with a history of alcohol abuse had a CVA 10 years ago that resulted in left hemiparesis. Today he is brought to the clinic reporting pain in his left leg. He is afebrile, has 4+ pitting edema in the lower left leg, and has minimal swelling of the right leg. Which action should the PN implement first?

• A. Obtain a blood alcohol test
• B. Inspect legs for infection or trauma
• C. Complete a mental status exam
• D. Inquire about dietary salt intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inspecting the legs for infection or trauma is the priority to assess the cause of the pain and edema, which could indicate deep vein thrombosis or cellulitis. Checking for signs of infection or trauma is crucial in this scenario to rule out potentially serious conditions. Obtaining a blood alcohol test, completing a mental status exam, or inquiring about dietary salt intake can be considered after addressing the immediate concern of identifying any infection or trauma in the leg.

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