Nursing Elites

1. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?

• A. Absence of a pulse
• B. Presence of a pulse
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Barrel chest
• B. Clubbing of the fingers
• C. Cough with sputum production
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD. It indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Barrel chest is a common physical characteristic in individuals with COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs but is not as acutely concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Clubbing of the fingers is a late sign of chronic hypoxia and is often seen in conditions with prolonged hypoxemia but is not as acute as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production is a common symptom in COPD due to excess mucus production but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress as the use of accessory muscles does.

3. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
• B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
• C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
• D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.

5. In a client with liver cirrhosis, which symptom would be most concerning during assessment?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Ascites
• C. Hepatomegaly
• D. Altered mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Altered mental status would be the most concerning symptom in a client with liver cirrhosis. It may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. While jaundice, ascites, and hepatomegaly are common in liver cirrhosis, they do not directly correlate with the urgency and severity of hepatic encephalopathy as altered mental status does. Therefore, altered mental status takes priority for immediate attention and intervention.

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