Nursing Elites

1. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?

• A. Absence of a pulse
• B. Presence of a pulse
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.

2. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?

• A. Ankle-foot orthotic
• B. Continuous passive motion machine
• C. Abduction splint
• D. Sequential compression device

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.

3. A home health nurse is planning to provide health promotion activities for a group of clients in the community. Which of the following activities is an example of the nurse promoting primary prevention?

• A. Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults
• B. Teaching clients how to manage chronic illnesses
• C. Providing counseling for depression
• D. Offering support groups for cancer survivors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults. This activity falls under primary prevention, which aims to prevent the onset of illness or injury. Immunizations are a proactive measure to protect individuals from developing certain diseases. Choices B, C, and D involve managing chronic illnesses, providing counseling for mental health issues, and offering support for individuals who have already experienced cancer, respectively. These activities are more aligned with secondary or tertiary prevention, focusing on managing existing conditions or preventing complications in those already affected.

4. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which action by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. The client rotates injection sites on the abdomen.
• B. The client draws up the insulin dose after warming the vial to room temperature.
• C. The client pinches the skin before injecting the insulin.
• D. The client injects the insulin at a 90-degree angle.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drawing up insulin after warming the vial to room temperature indicates a need for further teaching, as insulin should be at room temperature for administration. Choice A is correct as rotating injection sites helps prevent lipodystrophy. Choice C is correct as pinching the skin helps ensure proper subcutaneous injection. Choice D is correct as injecting insulin at a 90-degree angle is the recommended technique for subcutaneous injections.

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