Nursing Elites

1. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?

• A. Absence of a pulse
• B. Presence of a pulse
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.

2. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

3. During an admission history, a client tells a nurse that she is under a lot of stress. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to increase as a result of stress?

• A. Blood glucose - a common stress response.
• B. Intestinal peristalsis - should decrease due to stress.
• C. Peripheral blood vessels diameter - can vary in response to stress.
• D. Urine output - may vary but not a typical stress response.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stress typically increases blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones like cortisol and adrenaline. Elevated blood glucose helps provide energy for the body to cope with the stressful situation. Choice B is incorrect because intestinal peristalsis, the movement of the intestines, is more likely to decrease under stress due to the 'fight or flight' response. Choice C is incorrect as peripheral blood vessels' diameter may vary in response to stress, with both constriction and dilation possible. Choice D is incorrect as urine output may increase or decrease depending on individual differences and the specific stress response, but it is not a typical or direct physiological response to stress.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure proper administration?

• A. Check the placement of the tube by auscultation.
• B. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
• C. Administer the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• D. Dilute the medication with normal saline before administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure proper administration through a nasogastric tube, the LPN/LVN should flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure the tube is patent, prevents clogging, and helps deliver the medication effectively. Checking the placement of the tube by auscultation (Choice A) is essential but does not directly relate to ensuring proper administration. Administering the medication with food (Choice C) may not always be appropriate for all medications and may not necessarily prevent nausea. Diluting the medication with normal saline (Choice D) is not a standard practice for all medications administered via an NG tube and may alter the medication's effectiveness.

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