HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?
- A. Absence of a pulse
- B. Presence of a pulse
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.
2. A client with a terminal illness is being educated by a healthcare provider about declining resuscitation in a living will. The client asks, “What would happen if I arrived at the ED and I had difficulty breathing?”
- A. We would give you oxygen through a tube in your nose.
- B. We would initiate full resuscitation efforts.
- C. We would consult the living will and provide comfort care.
- D. We would not provide any medical intervention.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client has a living will that declines resuscitation. Therefore, if the client arrives at the emergency department with difficulty breathing, healthcare providers would consult the living will to understand the client's wishes. Providing comfort care, which may include oxygen therapy to alleviate symptoms, aligns with the client's preferences. Option A incorrectly suggests an intervention that goes against the client's wishes. Option B is incorrect because full resuscitation efforts are not in line with the client's choice to decline resuscitation. Option D is also incorrect as it does not consider the client's living will and the need to provide care according to the documented preferences of the client.
3. A healthcare provider is providing range of motion to the shoulder and must perform external rotation. Which action will the provider take?
- A. Moves the patient's arm in a full circle.
- B. Moves the patient's arm across the body as far as possible.
- C. Moves the patient's arm behind the body, keeping the elbow straight.
- D. Moves the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for external rotation of the shoulder involves moving the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed. This position maximizes external rotation at the shoulder joint. Choices A, moving the arm in a full circle, B, moving the arm across the body, and C, moving the arm behind the body with the elbow straight, do not describe external rotation and are incorrect. Therefore, Choice D is the correct action for performing external rotation.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is washing her hands prior to assisting with a surgical procedure. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates proper surgical hand-washing techniques?
- A. The nurse washes with her hands held higher than her elbows.
- B. The nurse uses a brush to scrub under her nails.
- C. The nurse washes for at least 30 seconds.
- D. The nurse uses alcohol-based hand rub only.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper surgical hand-washing technique involves keeping the hands higher than the elbows to prevent contamination. Washing with hands held lower than the elbows can lead to potential contamination. Using a brush to scrub under the nails is not recommended as it can cause microabrasions, increasing infection risk. While washing for at least 30 seconds is a good practice for thorough hand hygiene, hand positioning is critical during surgical hand-washing. Using alcohol-based hand rub alone is insufficient for surgical hand-washing as it may not effectively remove dirt, debris, and transient microorganisms.
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