Nursing Elites

1. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?

• A. Absence of a pulse
• B. Presence of a pulse
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.

2. During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?

• A. The nurse should have also initiated a plan to increase activity.
• B. The nurse provided supportive nursing care for the well-being of the client.
• C. Debridement of the pressure ulcer should have been performed before applying the dressing.
• D. Treatment should not have been initiated until the healthcare provider's prescriptions were received.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.

3. A client is evaluated by a nurse regarding the use of a sequential compression device. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the device's purpose?

• A. “This device will keep me from developing skin sores.”
• B. “This device will keep the blood circulating in my leg.”
• C. “This device will prevent my leg muscles from weakening.”
• D. “This device will maintain the health of my joints.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sequential compression devices are utilized to enhance circulation and prevent clot formation in the legs. Option A is incorrect because these devices are not primarily meant to prevent skin sores. Option C is incorrect because the devices do not directly address muscle weakness. Option D is incorrect as the main purpose of sequential compression devices is not related to joint health.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or any other medications that can increase the risk of bleeding without consulting their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that demonstrate understanding of warfarin therapy and its potential side effects. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain the effectiveness of warfarin, taking medication at the same time every day ensures consistent therapeutic levels, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding, which can be a side effect of warfarin therapy.

5. The caregiver is teaching parents about the diet for a 4-month-old infant with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration. In addition to oral rehydration fluids, the diet should include

• A. Formula or breast milk
• B. Broth and tea
• C. Rice cereal and apple juice
• D. Gelatin and ginger ale

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Formula or breast milk. In infants with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration, it is essential to continue feeding them with formula or breast milk along with oral rehydration fluids to provide adequate nutrition and maintain hydration. Option B, broth and tea, may not provide the necessary nutrients and electrolytes needed for the infant's recovery. Option C, rice cereal and apple juice, can be harsh on the digestive system and may exacerbate diarrhea. Option D, gelatin and ginger ale, do not provide the necessary nutrients and can worsen the condition due to the high sugar content in ginger ale.

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