Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Dorsogluteal site
• D. Rectus femoris site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the most appropriate and safest site for administering an intramuscular injection to an adult client. It is preferred due to its thick muscle mass and fewer major blood vessels and nerves in the area, reducing the risk of injury or complications. The deltoid muscle is commonly used for vaccines and small-volume injections but may not be suitable for larger volumes. The dorsogluteal site has fallen out of favor due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and other underlying structures. The rectus femoris site is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

2. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

3. Twenty minutes after starting a heat application, the client mentions that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the LPN/LVN?

• A. That indicates you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed.
• B. Your blood vessels are dilating and removing the heat from the site.
• C. We will increase the temperature by 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm.
• D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct response. The body's receptors adapt to the heat over time, which can explain why the client no longer perceives the warmth from the heating pad. This phenomenon is known as thermal adaptation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the client not feeling the warmth does not necessarily mean they have derived the maximum benefit. Choice B incorrectly states that blood vessels dilating remove heat, which is not accurate. Choice C suggests increasing the temperature when the pad no longer feels warm, which could potentially lead to burns or discomfort for the client.

4. A client is being treated for pneumonia and is receiving intravenous antibiotics. The nurse notes that the client has developed a rash and is complaining of itching. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

• A. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Discontinue the antibiotic infusion
• C. Apply a cool compress to the rash
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial nursing action when a client develops a rash and itching while receiving intravenous antibiotics is to discontinue the antibiotic infusion. This is crucial to prevent further allergic reactions. Administering diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice A) can be considered after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion. Applying a cool compress to the rash (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should come after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion to ensure the client's safety.

5. The client is preparing for discharge following treatment for heart failure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself every day at the same time.
• B. I will call my doctor if my legs swell more.
• C. I will take my water pill only when I feel short of breath.
• D. I will limit the amount of salt in my diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking water pills (diuretics) only when feeling short of breath is incorrect. Diuretics should be taken regularly as prescribed to manage fluid retention. Option A is correct as daily weight monitoring helps track for fluid retention. Option B is correct as worsening leg swelling should prompt contacting the healthcare provider. Option D is correct as limiting salt intake is essential in managing heart failure. Therefore, option C is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching.

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