HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. While being prepared for transport to the operating room, a client scheduled for hysterectomy informs the nurse that she no longer wants to have surgery. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the provider about the client's decision
- B. Proceed with the transport
- C. Prepare the surgical site
- D. Document the client’s statement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the provider about the client's decision. By informing the provider, they can discuss the client's change in decision, explore the reasons behind it, and determine the appropriate course of action. Proceeding with the transport (Choice B) without addressing the client's concerns would not respect the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Preparing the surgical site (Choice C) would be premature and inappropriate if the client no longer wishes to proceed with the surgery. While documenting the client's statement (Choice D) is important for documentation purposes, the immediate priority is to involve the provider in the decision-making process.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Serum creatinine
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication commonly used in clients with chronic kidney disease to stimulate red blood cell production. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy. Hemoglobin levels reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and indicate if the medication is successfully treating anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Option A, serum creatinine, is a marker of kidney function, not the primary indicator of epoetin alfa effectiveness. Option C, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), is a measure of kidney function and hydration status. Option D, platelet count, assesses clotting ability and is unrelated to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia in chronic kidney disease.
3. A nurse in a provider's office is preparing to assess a young adult client's musculoskeletal system as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Concave thoracic spine posteriorly
- B. Exaggerated lumbar curvature
- C. Concave lumbar spine posteriorly
- D. Exaggerated thoracic curvature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a young adult's musculoskeletal system, the nurse should expect an exaggerated lumbar curvature (lordosis). This is a normal finding in young adults due to the natural curvature of the spine. Concave thoracic spine posteriorly (choice A) and concave lumbar spine posteriorly (choice C) are not typical findings as the spine should have normal curvatures. Exaggerated thoracic curvature (choice D) is also not a typical finding in young adults.
4. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take first?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
- B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
- C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
- D. Obtain a peak flow reading.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the most appropriate initial action for managing asthma-related shortness of breath. Bronchodilators help to open up the airways quickly, providing relief for the client. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may be beneficial in some situations but should not be the first action for acute shortness of breath in asthma. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also help improve breathing, but administering the bronchodilator takes precedence. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important in asthma management, but it is not the initial action needed to address acute shortness of breath.
5. A 2-year-old child is brought to the health care provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for 2 days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement?
- A. Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours
- B. Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids
- C. Give bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated
- D. Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In managing mild diarrhea in a 2-year-old child, it is important to maintain their regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Choice A of placing the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours may not provide adequate nutrition and can lead to further electrolyte imbalances. Choice C of giving bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated is a part of the BRAT diet, which is not recommended as the primary approach anymore due to its limited nutritional value. Choice D of placing the child NPO for 24 hours and then rehydrating with milk and water is not appropriate as it can worsen dehydration and delay recovery. Therefore, the best option is to continue the child's regular diet while incorporating oral rehydration fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain nutritional status.
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