a post op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage the nurse notes that the clients urine bag has been empty for 2 hours the fir
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Fundamentals of Nursing HESI

1. A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure the client's safety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure the client's safety during a blood transfusion, it is crucial to verify the blood product with another nurse before administration. This step helps confirm the correct blood type and prevents transfusion reactions. While checking the client's identification and blood type (Choice A) is important, the ultimate responsibility lies with confirming the blood product before administration. Monitoring vital signs (Choice B) is necessary during a transfusion but does not directly address verifying the blood product. Administering blood through a peripheral IV line (Choice C) is a common practice but does not specifically ensure that the correct blood product is being administered, which is essential for the client's safety.

3. Which behavior indicates the nurse is using a team approach when caring for a patient who is experiencing alterations in mobility?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Consulting physical therapy for strengthening exercises in the extremities demonstrates a team approach in caring for a patient with mobility issues. Involving other healthcare professionals like physical therapists ensures a comprehensive and specialized approach to address the patient's mobility needs. This collaborative approach benefits the patient by providing specialized interventions. Choices A, B, and D do not exemplify a collaborative team approach. Delegating assessment tasks to nursing assistive personnel (Choice A) may not address the mobility issue directly. Becoming solely responsible for modifying activities of daily living (Choice B) limits the scope of interventions. Involving respiratory therapy for anxiety-related breathing issues (Choice D) addresses a different aspect of care and does not directly target mobility concerns.

4. After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, what should the LPN/LVN do next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After identifying a problem in a client, the next step for the LPN/LVN is to determine the etiology or cause of the problem. Understanding the root cause of the issue is essential as it guides the development of appropriate interventions. Option B, prioritizing nursing care interventions, is premature without knowing the cause of the problem. Option C, planning appropriate interventions, also relies on knowing the etiology first to ensure the interventions directly address the underlying issue. Collaborating with the client to set goals, as mentioned in option D, is important but typically comes after understanding the cause of the problem to ensure the goals are relevant and effective.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.

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