a post op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage the nurse notes that the clients urine bag has been empty for 2 hours the fir
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Fundamentals of Nursing HESI

1. A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.

2. While providing care to a group of patients, which patient should the nurse prioritize seeing first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea first. This patient is at higher risk for deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged bed rest, which can lead to a life-threatening embolus. Chest pain and dyspnea could also indicate a potential pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. The other patients, while requiring care, do not present with symptoms that suggest an immediate life-threatening situation, making them lower priority at this time. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it addresses a potentially critical condition that requires immediate attention.

3. A nurse on the IV team is conducting an in-service education program about the complications of IV therapy. Which of the following statements by an attendee indicates an understanding of the manifestations of infiltration? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is: 'The temperature around the IV site is cooler.' Cooler temperature around the site is indicative of infiltration, where IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing tissue swelling. The other options are incorrect: B) An increase in infusion rate is not a sign of infiltration; instead, it could indicate an issue with the infusion pump or the IV catheter. C) Redness around the IV site is more indicative of infection rather than infiltration. D) A damp IV dressing is more suggestive of a leak in the IV system, not infiltration.

4. An adult client is found to be unresponsive on morning rounds. After checking for responsiveness and calling for help, the next action that should be taken by the nurse is to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority is to ensure the client has a clear airway to facilitate breathing. After verifying unresponsiveness and calling for help, the nurse should open the client's airway to aid in maintaining ventilation. Checking the carotid pulse (Choice A) may be important but comes after ensuring a clear airway. Delivering abdominal thrusts (Choice B) is indicated for choking, not for an unresponsive client. Giving rescue breaths (Choice C) is also important but only after the airway has been established.

5. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.

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