the nurse is caring for a 4 year old 2 hours after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy which of the following assessments must be reported immediately
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old 2 hours after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments must be reported immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increased restlessness must be reported immediately as it may indicate bleeding or other complications post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. This could be a sign of a developing issue that requires urgent intervention. Vomiting of dark emesis, complaints of throat pain, and an apical heart rate of 110 are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for reporting as compared to the potential seriousness of increased restlessness in this scenario.

2. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.

4. The nurse is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the nurse use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irrigating the wound with sterile normal saline is the correct technique for cleansing a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Sterile normal saline is a standard and safe solution that helps to remove debris and promote healing without damaging healthy tissue. Choice A, using povidone-iodine solution, can be cytotoxic and delay wound healing. Choice C, using hydrogen peroxide, can be cytotoxic, cause tissue damage, and delay wound healing. Choice D, using wet-to-dry dressing to remove eschar, is an outdated and non-selective method that can cause trauma to the wound bed and delay healing. Therefore, choice B is the best option for wound cleansing in this scenario.

5. A client is 6 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery and is having difficulty voiding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to allow the client to hear running water while attempting to void. This can help stimulate the urge to urinate in a non-invasive way, promoting natural voiding. Providing a bedpan while sitting upright is also a suitable approach to facilitate voiding by encouraging a more natural position. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be a last resort due to infection risks and discomfort associated with catheterization. Encouraging the client to limit fluid intake is not appropriate as hydration is crucial for overall health and can aid in promoting voiding. Therefore, the best initial intervention to promote voiding in this scenario is to allow the client to hear running water.

Similar Questions

A nurse is preparing change of shift report after the night shift using one SBAR communication tool. Which of the following data should the nurse include when reporting background information?
A client who has just had a mastectomy has a closed wound suction device (hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection, the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client's intake of:
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged with home oxygen therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses