Nursing Elites

1. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?

• A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
• B. Note which actions were not implemented.
• C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
• D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.

2. A healthcare professional is supervising the logrolling of a patient. To which patient is the healthcare professional most likely providing care?

• A. A patient with neck surgery
• B. A patient with hypostatic pneumonia
• C. A patient with a total knee replacement
• D. A patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Logrolling is a technique used to move a patient as a single unit to prevent twisting or bending of the spine. Patients who have undergone neck surgery require special care to ensure the spinal column remains in straight alignment to prevent further injury. Therefore, the correct answer is a patient with neck surgery. Choice B, a patient with hypostatic pneumonia, does not require logrolling, as it is a condition affecting the lungs, not the spine. Choice C, a patient with a total knee replacement, does not typically necessitate logrolling, as the procedure focuses on the knee joint, not the spine. Choice D, a patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer, requires wound care but does not necessarily involve logrolling unless the ulcer is located in a critical area that requires special handling.

3. A client with a terminal illness is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates that the client's death is imminent?

• A. Cold extremities
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Increased level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cold extremities are a common sign observed in clients nearing death. This occurs due to decreased blood circulation as the body's systems begin to shut down. Cold extremities indicate poor perfusion and reduced function of vital organs. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not typically seen in clients approaching death; instead, a decreased appetite is more common. Elevated blood pressure (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients nearing the end of life, as blood pressure tends to decrease. An increased level of consciousness (Choice D) is also not indicative of imminent death, as clients near death often experience decreased level of consciousness or become unresponsive.

4. A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Heart murmur
• C. Macular rash
• D. Hemorrhage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A new or changed heart murmur is a common sign of valve involvement in infective endocarditis, indicating a complication such as valve damage or regurgitation. Dyspnea is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiac conditions not directly related to infective endocarditis. A macular rash is not a typical symptom of infective endocarditis, suggesting other conditions like infectious diseases. Hemorrhage is not a direct complication of infective endocarditis but may occur due to factors such as anticoagulant therapy or underlying bleeding disorders.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client:

• A. Is unable to swallow foods by mouth
• B. Has a gastrointestinal obstruction
• C. Requires additional caloric intake to support healing
• D. Is at risk for aspiration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Is unable to swallow foods by mouth.' Tube feeding is prescribed when a client is unable to safely swallow food by mouth but has a functional gastrointestinal tract. Option B, 'Has a gastrointestinal obstruction,' is incorrect as tube feeding is not typically prescribed for this reason. Option C, 'Requires additional caloric intake to support healing,' is incorrect because tube feeding is specifically for clients who are unable to swallow. Option D, 'Is at risk for aspiration,' is also incorrect as tube feeding would not be the primary intervention for aspiration risk; other strategies to reduce aspiration risk would be implemented instead.

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