Nursing Elites

1. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?

• A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
• B. Note which actions were not implemented.
• C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
• D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.

2. A nurse delegates a position change to a nursing assistive personnel. The nurse instructs the assistive personnel (AP) to place the patient in the lateral position. Which finding by the nurse indicates a correct outcome?

• A. Patient is lying on side.
• B. Patient is lying on back.
• C. Patient is lying semiprone.
• D. Patient is lying on abdomen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Patient is lying on side.' In the side-lying (or lateral) position, the patient rests on the side with the major portion of body weight on the dependent hip and shoulder. Choice B, 'Patient is lying on back,' is incorrect as it describes a supine position. Choice C, 'Patient is lying semiprone,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is partially lying on the abdomen. Choice D, 'Patient is lying on abdomen,' is incorrect as it describes a prone position where the patient is lying face down.

3. When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Turn the client’s head to the side.
• B. Place two fingers in the client’s mouth to open it.
• C. Brush the client’s teeth once per day.
• D. Inject mouth rinse into the center of the client’s mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, the nurse should turn the client’s head to the side. This action helps prevent aspiration by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing fingers into the client’s mouth can be dangerous and may cause injury. Brushing the client’s teeth only once a day may not be sufficient for proper oral hygiene care. Injecting mouth rinse into the center of the mouth is not recommended and can potentially lead to aspiration. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to turn the client’s head to the side.

4. A healthcare professional is planning care for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?

• A. Empty the drainage bag at least every 8 hours
• B. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder
• C. Use sterile technique to collect a specimen from the drainage system
• D. Secure the catheter to the lower abdomen with a securement device

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan is to keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder. This positioning helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Emptying the drainage bag regularly is important, typically every 4-8 hours or when it is half-full, to maintain adequate flow and prevent infection (Choice A is incorrect). Using a sterile technique to collect specimens from the drainage system is crucial to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, so clean technique should not be used (Choice C is incorrect). Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is not recommended as it can cause tension on the catheter, leading to discomfort and potential trauma to the urethra (Choice D is incorrect).

5. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.4
• B. Sodium 140
• C. Calcium 8.6
• D. Magnesium 2.0

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.

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