Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is counseling an older adult who describes having difficulty with several issues. Which of the following problems verbalized by the client should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. “I spent my whole life dreaming about retirement, and now I wish I had my job back.”
• B. “It’s been so stressful for me to have to depend on my child to help around the house.”
• C. “I just heard my friend Al die. That’s the third one in 3 months.”
• D. “I keep forgetting which medications I have taken during the day.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The statement expressing the loss of friends is the priority issue as it indicates potential grief and emotional distress. Losing multiple friends within a short period can have a profound impact on an older adult's emotional well-being. Option A expresses regret but does not indicate an immediate emotional crisis. Option B focuses on stress related to dependence, which is important but not as urgent as coping with loss. Option D highlights a memory concern, which is significant but does not address the emotional impact of loss.

2. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a peak flow reading.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the most appropriate initial action for managing asthma-related shortness of breath. Bronchodilators help to open up the airways quickly, providing relief for the client. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may be beneficial in some situations but should not be the first action for acute shortness of breath in asthma. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also help improve breathing, but administering the bronchodilator takes precedence. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important in asthma management, but it is not the initial action needed to address acute shortness of breath.

3. In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will:

• A. Be at an increased susceptibility for infection
• B. Have a wound that heals more slowly
• C. Experience more pain during the healing process
• D. Require more frequent dressing changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wounds healing by secondary intention involve the gradual filling of the wound with granulation tissue, leading to a higher risk of infection due to prolonged exposure. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because wounds healing by secondary intention take longer to heal and often result in more pain compared to wounds healing by primary intention. Choice D is also incorrect as wounds healing by secondary intention usually require more frequent dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing.

4. While changing a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Force oral fluids
• B. Request a nutrition consult
• C. Initiate contact precautions
• D. Limit visitors to immediate family only

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is a highly contagious bacterium that spreads through direct contact. Contact precautions involve wearing gloves and gowns to prevent the spread of infection to other patients or healthcare workers. Force-feeding oral fluids, requesting a nutrition consult, or limiting visitors to immediate family only are not the most appropriate actions in this scenario. These actions do not directly address the need to prevent the spread of MRSA, which is crucial in a healthcare setting.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 1 ml.
• B. 1.5 ml.
• C. 1.75 ml.
• D. 2 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.

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