HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. What intervention can help prevent atelectasis and pneumonia in a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
- A. Active and passive range of motion exercises twice a day
- B. Every 4 hours incentive spirometer
- C. Chest physiotherapy twice a day
- D. Repositioning every 2 hours around the clock
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chest physiotherapy is essential for clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. Chest physiotherapy aids in clearing secretions, maintaining lung function, and preventing respiratory complications. Active and passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are important for maintaining joint mobility but are not directly associated with preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS. Incentive spirometer use every 4 hours (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion and preventing atelectasis but may not be as effective as chest physiotherapy in managing secretions. Repositioning every 2 hours (Choice D) is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS.
2. A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?
- A. Assess the blood pressure for hypertension.
- B. Gently massage fundus every four hours.
- C. Observe for signs of uterine hemorrhage.
- D. Encourage direct contact with the infant.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.
3. A 2-week-old infant is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of a ventricular septal defect. The parents report that their baby has had difficulty feeding since coming home after birth. What should the nurse consider before responding?
- A. Feeding problems are common in neonates.
- B. Inadequate sucking is not significant unless cyanosis is present.
- C. Ineffective sucking and swallowing may be early indications of a heart defect.
- D. Many neonates retain mucus, which can interfere with feeding for several weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ineffective sucking and swallowing can be early signs of a heart defect like a ventricular septal defect. This is crucial information for the nurse to consider as it aligns with the infant's tentative diagnosis. Choice A is too general and does not provide specific relevance to the situation. Choice B is incorrect as inadequate sucking can indeed be significant, especially in the context of a potential heart defect. Choice D is not directly related to the potential heart defect and feeding difficulties mentioned in the scenario.
4. The embryo and fetus develop within a protective _______ in the uterus.
- A. amniotic sac
- B. umbilical cord
- C. neural tube
- D. embryonic disk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the amniotic sac. The amniotic sac is a fluid-filled structure that surrounds and protects the developing embryo and fetus in the uterus. It provides a cushion against external pressure, allows for movement and growth, and helps maintain a stable environment for the developing fetus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the placenta and serves as a conduit for nutrients and waste; the neural tube is a structure that forms the central nervous system in early embryonic development; and the embryonic disk is a structure that forms during gastrulation, one of the early stages of embryonic development.
5. A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.
- A. Indicate a form of treatment a client is willing to accept.
- B. Specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment.
- C. Determine the client's daily medication schedule.
- D. Outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.