Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who reports a pain level of 5 on a scale from 0-10. The client informs the nurse that pain medication is not an option for managing pain. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. I'm sure it will work if you just give it a chance.
• B. You may take any herbal remedies you bring from home.
• C. Why do you think pain medication is not going to help you?
• D. Would you like me to give you a back massage?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client has expressed that pain medication is not an option for managing pain. Offering alternative pain relief options like a back massage is appropriate because it respects the client's preferences and provides a non-pharmacological intervention to help alleviate pain. Choices A, B, and C are not as suitable: A may come across as dismissive of the client's decision, B may not be safe as herbal remedies can interact with medical treatments, and C focuses more on questioning the client's decision rather than providing immediate comfort.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Abdomen
• D. Dorsogluteal site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen due to better absorption and reduced risk of injury to underlying structures. The deltoid muscle is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin due to the potential risk of injury to underlying structures. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more appropriate for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections.

3. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

• A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
• B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
• C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
• D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
• B. Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
• C. Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position for medication administration
• D. Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administering it

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to gently shake the container of liquid medication before administration. Shaking the container ensures proper mixing of the medication, which is important to maintain uniformity of the dose. Transferring the medication to a medicine cup (choice B) may not be necessary for a small volume like 0.5 mL. Placing the client in a semi-Fowler's position (choice C) is not directly related to administering liquid medication orally. Verifying the dosage by measuring the liquid (choice D) is important but does not address the specific action needed to prepare the medication for administration.

5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• C. Measure the client's vital signs.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin sublingually. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is the priority action for a client with chest pain and a history of coronary artery disease. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and providing rapid relief of chest pain. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG, measuring vital signs, and administering oxygen are important actions but should follow the administration of nitroglycerin in the management of chest pain in a client with coronary artery disease.

Similar Questions