Nursing Elites

1. The client is reviewing the signed operative consent with a nurse, who is admitted for the removal of a lipoma on the left leg. The client states that the consent form should say the removal of a lipoma on the right leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the surgical team of the client’s confusion
• B. Have the client sign a new surgical consent
• C. Add the correct leg information to the consent form
• D. Inform the surgeon about the client’s concern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should inform the surgeon about the client’s concern immediately. This is important to ensure that the correct procedure is performed on the intended leg. Communication with the surgeon is crucial to address any discrepancies in the consent form and prevent errors during the surgical procedure. Having the surgeon clarify and correct the consent form is essential to maintain patient safety and uphold the principles of informed consent.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer 2 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which action should the nurse implement to ensure the client’s safety?

• A. Obtain informed consent from the client for the PRBC transfusion
• B. Review the client’s medical history for a history of transfusion reactions
• C. Assess the client’s baseline vital signs before starting the transfusion
• D. Verify the blood type and crossmatch with another licensed nurse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the blood type and crossmatch with another licensed nurse is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions and ensure the client's safety. This step helps confirm that the correct blood type is being transfused to the client, reducing the risk of adverse reactions and promoting safe care. Obtaining informed consent (Choice A) is important but not directly related to ensuring the safety of the transfusion. Reviewing the client's medical history for transfusion reactions (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as verifying the blood type and crossmatching. Assessing baseline vital signs (Choice C) is a routine practice before transfusion but ensuring the correct blood type is a higher priority.

3. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?

• A. Continue gabapentin.
• B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
• C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
• D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.

4. What intervention should the healthcare provider include in the plan of care for a client receiving treatment with an Unna's paste boot for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency?

• A. Check capillary refill of toes on the lower extremity with the Unna's paste boot.
• B. Apply dressing to the wound area before applying the Unna's paste boot.
• C. Wrap the leg from the knee down towards the foot.
• D. Remove the Unna's paste boot every 8 hours to assess wound healing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an Unna's paste boot is applied for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency, it is crucial to check the capillary refill of the toes on the lower extremity to ensure adequate circulation. The Unna's paste boot can become rigid after drying, potentially affecting circulation distally. Monitoring capillary refill helps assess the perfusion status of the distal extremity and ensures that the treatment is not compromising circulation to the toes.

5. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

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