HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. Two hours after delivering a 9-pound infant, a client saturates a perineal pad every 15 minutes. Although an IV containing Pitocin is infusing, her uterus remains boggy, even with massage. The healthcare provider prescribes methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM STAT. Which complication should the nurse be alert to this client developing?
- A. Decreased respiratory rate
- B. Increased temperature
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) is a medication used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. One of the potential side effects is hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure after administering Methergine. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Methergine is not known to cause decreased respiratory rate, increased temperature, or tachycardia.
2. While caring for a client with bilateral chest tubes, the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container
- B. Replace the water-seal collection container
- C. Increase the amount of wall suction connected to the right chest tube
- D. Milk the tubing connected to the right chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops is to check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container. This is crucial to ensure there are no disconnections or leaks affecting the bubbling. Replacing the water-seal collection container (choice B) is not necessary unless there is a malfunction; increasing suction (choice C) without assessing the connections can be harmful, and 'milking' the tubing (choice D) is an inappropriate action that can cause damage to the system.
3. A client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis describes this client’s current health status?
- A. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility
- B. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure
- C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move self in bed
- D. Impaired physical mobility related to the left-side paralysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.' This nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip, which is caused by altered circulation and pressure due to the client's left-side paralysis. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the risk for impaired tissue integrity rather than the current issue of impaired skin integrity. Choice C is incorrect as ineffective tissue perfusion is not the primary issue in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as it only addresses the left-side paralysis and not the pressure ulcer or altered circulation.
4. What action should the nurse take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology?
- A. Ensure the client remains NPO until all samples are collected
- B. Transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag
- C. Discard the initial sample and document the time it was obtained
- D. Document the time the client last ate or drank on the laboratory slip
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology is to transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag. This is important to ensure proper handling and prevent contamination of the sample. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to keep the client NPO until all samples are collected. Choice C is incorrect as the initial sample should not be discarded but rather transported to the laboratory. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the time the client last ate or drank is not directly relevant to the immediate action needed for the sputum sample.
5. The nurse is teaching a male adolescent recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) about self-injecting insulin. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching?
- A. Observe him demonstrating the self-injection technique to another diabetic adolescent.
- B. Ask the adolescent to describe his comfort level with injecting himself with insulin.
- C. Review his glycosylated hemoglobin level 3 months after the teaching session.
- D. Have the adolescent list the steps for safe insulin administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reviewing the glycosylated hemoglobin level after a few months is the best approach to evaluate the effectiveness of teaching self-injection. This measurement provides an objective indicator of the adolescent's glucose control over time, reflecting the impact of insulin self-administration education. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the long-term impact of the teaching on the adolescent's diabetes management.
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