Nursing Elites

1. Two hours after delivering a 9-pound infant, a client saturates a perineal pad every 15 minutes. Although an IV containing Pitocin is infusing, her uterus remains boggy, even with massage. The healthcare provider prescribes methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM STAT. Which complication should the nurse be alert to this client developing?

• A. Decreased respiratory rate
• B. Increased temperature
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) is a medication used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. One of the potential side effects is hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure after administering Methergine. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Methergine is not known to cause decreased respiratory rate, increased temperature, or tachycardia.

2. Which behavior is most likely to result in a breach of client confidentiality?

• A. Discussing a client’s condition during a teaching conference for nursing staff caring for the client
• B. Two nurses planning a client’s care while having lunch in the hospital cafeteria
• C. Nursing students on the same team discussing their assigned client’s conditions
• D. A registered nurse privately sharing personal feelings about a client with another nurse on the team

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Discussing client information in a public area, such as a cafeteria, may lead to breaches of confidentiality. Choice A involves discussing a client's condition in a professional setting, which is not likely to result in a breach as it is for educational purposes. Choice C involves nursing students discussing their assigned client's conditions, which is common in a learning environment and not necessarily a breach of confidentiality. Choice D involves a private conversation between healthcare professionals, which is less likely to result in a breach compared to discussing in a public area like a cafeteria where non-authorized individuals may overhear the conversation.

3. Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Check for any kinks or obstructions in the client’s Foley tubing
• B. Assess the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes
• C. Administer a prescribed PRN dose of hydralazine (Apresoline)
• D. Educate the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

4. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?

• A. Right lower abdominal pain
• B. Confusion
• C. Depression
• D. Peripheral neuropathy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.

5. Which client’s vital signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?

• A. P 70, BP 120/60 mmHg; P 100, BP 90/60 mmHg; rapid respirations.
• B. P 55, BP 160/70 mmHg; P 50, BP 194/70 mmHg; irregular respirations.
• C. P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations.
• D. P 110, BP 130/70 mmHg; P 100, BP 110/70 mmHg; shallow respirations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. The vital signs presented (P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations) indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which can be a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention. Kussmaul respirations are deep and labored breathing patterns associated with metabolic acidosis and can be a late sign of increased ICP. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate vital sign patterns consistent with increased ICP. Choice A shows variations in blood pressure and pulse rate but does not provide a clear indication of increased ICP. Choice B displays fluctuations in blood pressure and pulse rate with irregular respirations, but these vital signs do not specifically suggest increased ICP. Choice D presents relatively stable vital signs with shallow respirations, which do not align with the typical vital signs seen in increased ICP.

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