an older female client living in a low income apartment complex tells the home health nurse that she is concerned about her 81 year old neighbor a wid
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2022

1. An older female client living in a low-income apartment complex tells the home health nurse that she is concerned about her 81-year-old neighbor, a widow whose son recently assumed her financial affairs. Lately, her neighbor has become reclusive but is occasionally seen walking outside wearing only a robe and slippers. What response should the nurse offer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to provide the number for Adult Protective Services so the client can report any suspicion of elder abuse. This action allows for an official investigation into possible elder abuse or neglect, ensuring the neighbor’s safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because assuming dementia without evidence is premature and could lead to overlooking potential abuse. Choice B is incorrect as the situation raises concerns about possible neglect or abuse, which should be reported promptly to the appropriate authorities. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the importance of ensuring the safety and well-being of the neighbor in need.

2. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.

3. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.

4. An adult client with a broken femur is transferred to the medical-surgical unit to await surgical internal fixation after the application of an external traction device to stabilize the leg. An hour after an opioid analgesic was administered, the client reports muscle spasms and pain at the fracture site. While waiting for the client to be transported to surgery, which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant. Muscle spasms and pain might be relieved by muscle relaxants, which are appropriate before surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the client is experiencing muscle spasms, not signs of deep vein thrombosis. Choice C is not the most immediate action needed in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because reducing the weight on the traction device would not directly address the muscle spasms and pain reported by the client.

5. The nurse provides discharge teaching to a client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus (DM). After receiving the instructions, the client expresses understanding about when, how, and why to take his prescribed medications at home. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing the client with a printed list of medications and a schedule for administration is crucial to ensure adherence and understanding of the medication regimen at home. This intervention helps the client follow the prescribed treatment plan accurately. Choice A is not as essential since the client already understands when, how, and why to take the medications. Choice C is not a priority at this point as the client needs information for home medication management. Choice D, while helpful, is not the most important intervention compared to providing a clear list and schedule for medication administration.

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