an older female client living in a low income apartment complex tells the home health nurse that she is concerned about her 81 year old neighbor a wid
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2022

1. An older female client living in a low-income apartment complex tells the home health nurse that she is concerned about her 81-year-old neighbor, a widow whose son recently assumed her financial affairs. Lately, her neighbor has become reclusive but is occasionally seen walking outside wearing only a robe and slippers. What response should the nurse offer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to provide the number for Adult Protective Services so the client can report any suspicion of elder abuse. This action allows for an official investigation into possible elder abuse or neglect, ensuring the neighbor’s safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because assuming dementia without evidence is premature and could lead to overlooking potential abuse. Choice B is incorrect as the situation raises concerns about possible neglect or abuse, which should be reported promptly to the appropriate authorities. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the importance of ensuring the safety and well-being of the neighbor in need.

2. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has undergone abdominal surgery. What instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks.' After abdominal surgery, it is essential to avoid heavy lifting to prevent complications such as incisional hernias and support proper healing. Choice B, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection,' is incorrect because adequate fluid intake is necessary for wound healing and preventing dehydration. Choice C, 'Resume normal activities as soon as possible,' is incorrect as it may increase the risk of complications and delay healing. Choice D, 'Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks,' is incorrect as the restriction on driving may vary depending on the type of surgery and individual recovery.

4. The nurse instructs an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to turn an immobilized elderly client with an indwelling urinary catheter every two hours. What additional action should the nurse instruct the UAP to take each time the client is turned?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct additional action the nurse should instruct the UAP to take each time the immobilized elderly client with an indwelling urinary catheter is turned is to empty the urinary drainage bag. This action helps to prevent backflow of urine, reduces the risk of infection, and prevents bladder distention, which are crucial for the client's comfort and health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the care of a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Feeding a snack, offering oral fluids, or assessing breath sounds are important aspects of care but not the immediate action needed when turning a client with an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent complications.

5. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.

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