Nursing Elites

1. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

2. The nurse is teaching a male adolescent recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) about self-injecting insulin. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching?

• A. Observe him demonstrating the self-injection technique to another diabetic adolescent.
• B. Ask the adolescent to describe his comfort level with injecting himself with insulin.
• C. Review his glycosylated hemoglobin level 3 months after the teaching session.
• D. Have the adolescent list the steps for safe insulin administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reviewing the glycosylated hemoglobin level after a few months is the best approach to evaluate the effectiveness of teaching self-injection. This measurement provides an objective indicator of the adolescent's glucose control over time, reflecting the impact of insulin self-administration education. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the long-term impact of the teaching on the adolescent's diabetes management.

3. When assessing a client several hours after surgery, the nurse observes that the client grimaces and guards the incision while moving in bed. The client is diaphoretic, has a radial pulse rate of 110 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min. What assessment should the nurse perform first?

• A. Apical heart rate
• B. IV site and fluids
• C. Pain scale
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client’s grimacing and guarding suggest pain; assessing the pain scale is crucial for addressing the discomfort. Pain management is a priority to ensure the client's well-being and comfort. Checking the apical heart rate, IV site and fluids, or temperature can be important but addressing the client's pain takes precedence in this scenario. The elevated pulse rate and respiratory rate could be indicative of pain, making the pain scale assessment essential to guide appropriate interventions.

4. The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
• B. Teaching the client how to push to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
• C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
• D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to position the client for proper distribution of anesthesia. Proper positioning ensures effective pain management during labor, optimizing the effects of the regional anesthesia. While raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach (choice A) is important for safety, teaching the client how to push (choice B) and timing and recording uterine contractions (choice C) are vital aspects of care but are not the highest priority immediately after administering regional anesthesia.

5. A client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis describes this client’s current health status?

• A. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility
• B. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure
• C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move self in bed
• D. Impaired physical mobility related to the left-side paralysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.' This nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip, which is caused by altered circulation and pressure due to the client's left-side paralysis. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the risk for impaired tissue integrity rather than the current issue of impaired skin integrity. Choice C is incorrect as ineffective tissue perfusion is not the primary issue in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as it only addresses the left-side paralysis and not the pressure ulcer or altered circulation.

Similar Questions