an iv antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection the medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses what schedule is be
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HESI CAT Exam Test Bank

1. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

2. When the client asks the nurse if they have ever been with someone when they died, what is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response as it acknowledges the client's question and opens the door for further discussion about dying if the client wishes to. It shows empathy and encourages the client to express any concerns they may have. Choices B and C do not directly address the client's question or offer an opportunity for him to explore his concerns. Choice D acknowledges the experience but fails to address the client's question directly and does not encourage further discussion.

3. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

4. The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant’s clinical picture?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.

5. A male client with angina pectoris is being discharged from the hospital. What instructions should the nurse plan to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep nitroglycerin in a light-colored container and readily available. Nitroglycerin should be protected from light to maintain its effectiveness. Option A is incorrect because physical exercise immediately before eating can trigger angina. Option B is incorrect as cold weather can exacerbate angina symptoms. Option D is incorrect as isometric exercises can increase the workload on the heart, which is not recommended for individuals with angina.

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