Nursing Elites

1. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

2. The nurse assesses a 5-year-old child who has been experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting. The nurse notices that the child is lethargic and has a positive Brudzinski sign. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Perform a complete neurological examination
• B. Measure the child’s head circumference
• C. Check the child’s blood glucose level
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The presence of lethargy and a positive Brudzinski sign in a child experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting may indicate a serious condition like meningitis. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and initiation of appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while a neurological examination may be necessary, it is not the priority when a potentially serious condition like meningitis is suspected. Choice B is incorrect as measuring the child's head circumference is not the most immediate action to take in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as checking the child's blood glucose level, although important in some cases, is not the priority when a child presents with symptoms suggestive of meningitis.

3. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out.” The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Splitting
• C. Projection
• D. Rationalization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is projecting his feelings of anger and frustration onto his roommate, attributing his own feelings to the other person. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their thoughts, feelings, or motives onto another person. In this scenario, the client is displacing his anger onto his roommate, thereby using projection as a defense mechanism. Denial (choice A) is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Splitting (choice B) involves viewing people as all good or all bad. Rationalization (choice D) is creating logical explanations to justify unacceptable behavior.

4. In a client in her third trimester of pregnancy, an S3 heart sound is auscultated. What intervention should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Limit the client’s fluids
• C. Prepare the client for an echocardiogram
• D. Document in the client’s record

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An S3 heart sound can be a normal finding in pregnancy due to increased blood volume and flow. In this scenario, there is no immediate need for further interventions. Documenting this finding in the client's record is essential for tracking the client's health status and ensuring proper follow-up if needed. Notifying the healthcare provider, limiting fluids, or preparing for an echocardiogram is unnecessary as it is likely a physiological finding in pregnancy. These interventions should only be considered if other symptoms suggestive of a cardiac issue are present.

5. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit? The client who is

• A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
• B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago.
• C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
• D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from dehydration caused by severe diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client who is ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago is stable enough for transfer compared to the other clients. Choice A should not be transferred as the client is still in the learning phase of self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, requiring close monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred immediately after having a permanent pacemaker insertion as they need telemetry monitoring for any complications. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to dehydration caused by severe diarrhea, requiring immediate intervention and close monitoring on the telemetry unit.

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