Nursing Elites

1. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

2. Several months after a foot injury, an adult woman is diagnosed with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse when the pain will 'finally go away.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Explain that healing from the injury can take many months.
• B. Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.
• C. Encourage the client to verbalize her fears about the pain.
• D. Complete an assessment of the client’s functional ability.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.' In cases of chronic neuropathic pain, complete resolution is often not achievable. Therefore, the most appropriate approach is to help the client develop strategies to manage the pain effectively. Choice A is incorrect because it may give false hope of immediate resolution, which is unlikely with neuropathic pain. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's need for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on functional ability assessment, which is not the priority when addressing the client's pain concerns.

3. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
• B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
• C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
• D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

4. The nurse is admitting a client from the post-anesthesia unit to the postoperative surgical care unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Advance to clear liquids as tolerated
• B. Straight catheterization if unable to void
• C. Administer Cefazolin 1 gram IVPQ q6 hours
• D. Obtain a complete blood cell count (CBC) in the morning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform straight catheterization if the client is unable to void. This action is essential to prevent urinary retention and its potential complications following anesthesia. Option A, advancing to clear liquids, is not the priority upon admission as the focus should be on urinary function first. Option C involves administering an antibiotic, which is important but not the immediate priority. Option D, obtaining a CBC, can be done later and is not as crucial as ensuring proper urinary function postoperatively.

5. The client with diabetes mellitus type 1 has a fruity breath odor. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Evaluate the client’s intake and output
• B. Measure the client’s capillary blood glucose
• C. Consult with the dietitian about the client’s diet
• D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the client’s finger

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fruity breath odor in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 can indicate ketoacidosis, a serious complication. Measuring the client’s capillary blood glucose is the priority nursing action in this scenario as it helps diagnose and manage the condition effectively. Evaluating intake and output may be important for overall assessment but not the priority when dealing with a potential emergency like ketoacidosis. Consulting with a dietitian about the client’s diet is important for long-term management but not the immediate priority. Applying a pulse oximeter is not relevant to addressing the fruity breath odor and suspected ketoacidosis.

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