Nursing Elites

1. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

2. The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
• B. Teaching the client how to push to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
• C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
• D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to position the client for proper distribution of anesthesia. Proper positioning ensures effective pain management during labor, optimizing the effects of the regional anesthesia. While raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach (choice A) is important for safety, teaching the client how to push (choice B) and timing and recording uterine contractions (choice C) are vital aspects of care but are not the highest priority immediately after administering regional anesthesia.

3. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide a client who asks the purpose of using the log-rolling technique for turning?

• A. Working together can decrease the risk of back injury.
• B. The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment.
• C. Using two or three people increases client safety.
• D. Turning instead of pulling reduces the likelihood of skin damage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment.' Log-rolling is a technique used to move a person as a single unit to maintain the alignment of the spinal column. This is crucial to prevent spinal cord injury, especially in clients with suspected spine fractures. Choice A is incorrect because log-rolling focuses on spinal alignment, not just decreasing back injury risks. Choice C is incorrect because the number of people involved is not the primary purpose of log-rolling, which is maintaining spinal alignment. Choice D is incorrect because while turning instead of pulling may help prevent skin damage, the primary goal of log-rolling is to protect the spine, not the skin.

4. Parents who have one male child with sickle cell anemia are concerned about having more children with the disease. What client teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. All future children will be carriers, but will not necessarily have the disease
• B. There is a chance that each future child will have the disease
• C. Only male children cannot inherit the sickle cell disease trait
• D. Only one out of four of their children will definitely manifest the disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Each child has a 25% chance of having sickle cell anemia if both parents are carriers of the trait. Choice A is incorrect because not all future children will be carriers; some may have the disease. Choice C is incorrect as both male and female children can inherit the sickle cell disease trait. Choice D is incorrect as the chance is not fixed at one out of four; each child has an independent 25% chance of having the disease.

5. To evaluate the client's therapeutic response to lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Percussion of abdomen
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness is essential in evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, thereby improving the client's mental status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness helps determine if the medication is effectively managing hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices B, percussion of the abdomen, and D, blood glucose, are not directly related to evaluating the therapeutic response to lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C, serum electrolytes, while important in overall patient care, is not the primary assessment to determine lactulose's effectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy.

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