Nursing Elites

1. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

2. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
• B. Full volume of pedal pulse
• C. Reduced level of pain
• D. Improved visual activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.

3. A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?

• A. Mechanical ventilation
• B. Platelet transfusion
• C. Loop diuretic therapy
• D. Cyanocobalamin administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.

4. The nurse is admitting a client from the post-anesthesia unit to the postoperative surgical care unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Advance to clear liquids as tolerated
• B. Straight catheterization if unable to void
• C. Administer Cefazolin 1 gram IVPQ q6 hours
• D. Obtain a complete blood cell count (CBC) in the morning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform straight catheterization if the client is unable to void. This action is essential to prevent urinary retention and its potential complications following anesthesia. Option A, advancing to clear liquids, is not the priority upon admission as the focus should be on urinary function first. Option C involves administering an antibiotic, which is important but not the immediate priority. Option D, obtaining a CBC, can be done later and is not as crucial as ensuring proper urinary function postoperatively.

5. The nurse working on a mental health unit is prioritizing nursing care activities due to a staffing shortage. One practical nurse (PN) is on the unit with the nurse, and another RN is expected to arrive within two hours. Clients need to be awakened, and morning medications need to be prepared. Which plan is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Wake all the clients and instruct them to go to the dining area for medication administration
• B. Explain to the clients that it will be necessary to cooperate until another RN arrives
• C. Ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened so both nurses are available
• D. Allow the clients to sleep until a third staff person can assist with unit activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best plan for the nurse to implement is to ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened. This approach ensures that medication administration and client care are efficiently managed despite the staffing shortage. Option A is incorrect as it may disrupt the workflow and create unnecessary chaos. Option B is not the best choice as it does not address the immediate need for medication administration. Option D is not ideal as it delays client care until additional staff arrive, potentially compromising patient safety and timely medication administration.

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