Nursing Elites

1. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

2. The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?

• A. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation
• B. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process
• C. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions
• D. Average client scores improved on a specific risk factor knowledge test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.

3. A client with complaints of shortness of breath and abdominal pain 1 week after bariatric surgery is admitted for follow-up evaluation. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rectal temperature of 101°F
• B. Complaints of left shoulder pain
• C. Blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg
• D. Sustained sinus tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg indicates possible hypovolemia or shock, which requires immediate attention. Hypotension can be a sign of decreased perfusion to vital organs, potentially leading to organ failure. The other options, such as a rectal temperature of 101°F, complaints of left shoulder pain, or sustained sinus tachycardia, while important, do not present the same level of immediate threat to the client's well-being as a critically low blood pressure.

4. A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?

• A. Mechanical ventilation
• B. Platelet transfusion
• C. Loop diuretic therapy
• D. Cyanocobalamin administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.

5. An adult client presents to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristic of Kaposi’s Sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family members. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood sample to determine if the client is HIV positive
• B. Send the family to the waiting area while conducting a head-to-toe assessment
• C. Complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV
• D. Ask the family members to wear gloves when touching the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV. Kaposi’s Sarcoma is commonly associated with HIV infection, and conducting a comprehensive assessment can provide crucial information on potential signs and symptoms related to HIV. This information is essential for providing appropriate care and treatment. Option A is not the priority at this moment, as the focus should be on assessing the client comprehensively first. Sending the family members away (Option B) may not be necessary if they are not interfering with the assessment process. While infection control is important, asking the family members to wear gloves (Option D) is not the most critical action to take in this situation.

Similar Questions