Nursing Elites

1. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

2. A female client on the mental health unit frequently asks the nurse when she can be discharged. Then, becoming more anxious, she begins to pace the hallway. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the current treatment plan with the client
• B. Inform the healthcare provider about the client’s behaviors
• C. Determine if the client has PRN medication for anxiety
• D. Explore the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Exploring the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged should be the first intervention as it helps to address underlying anxieties and concerns. By understanding the client's motivations, the nurse can provide appropriate support and interventions. It can also reduce distress and improve the therapeutic relationship. Reviewing the treatment plan (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate distress takes precedence. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice B) can be considered later if necessary. Determining if the client has PRN medication (Choice C) is relevant, but exploring the underlying reasons for the desire to be discharged is more beneficial in this situation.

3. A client with chronic alcoholism is admitted with a decreased serum magnesium level. Which snack option should the nurse recommend to this client?

• A. Cheddar cheese and crackers
• B. Carrot and celery sticks
• C. Beef bologna sausage slices
• D. Dry roasted almonds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry roasted almonds are the most suitable snack option for a client with chronic alcoholism and a decreased serum magnesium level because they are high in magnesium. Magnesium is essential in addressing the deficiency. Cheddar cheese and crackers (Choice A) do not contain as much magnesium as almonds. Carrot and celery sticks (Choice B) are healthy choices but do not provide a significant amount of magnesium. Beef bologna sausage slices (Choice C) are not a good choice as processed meats are not rich in magnesium.

4. A client with acute renal failure (ARF) is admitted for uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus and hyperkalemia. The nurse administers an IV dose of regular insulin per sliding scale. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry.
• B. Maintain venous access with an infusion of normal saline.
• C. Assess glucose levels via finger stick every 4 to 6 hours.
• D. Evaluate hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac activity is crucial in this scenario because hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring of the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry allows for early detection of any potential cardiac complications. Maintaining venous access with a normal saline infusion is important for hydration but does not address the immediate risk of cardiac dysrhythmias posed by hyperkalemia. Assessing glucose levels is essential in diabetes management but is not the priority when dealing with hyperkalemia-induced cardiac risks. Evaluating hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function is important in ARF but is not as urgent as monitoring the client's cardiac activity in the context of hyperkalemia.

5. Prior to surgery, written consent must be obtained. What is the nurse’s legal responsibility with regard to obtaining written consent?

• A. Validate the client's understanding of the surgical procedure to be conducted
• B. Explain the surgical procedure to the client and ensure the client comprehends before signing the consent form
• C. Ensure the client, not a family member, signs the surgical consent form
• D. Confirm that the surgical consent form is signed and included in the client's record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's legal responsibility in obtaining written consent is to validate the client's understanding of the surgical procedure to be conducted. This process ensures that the client has been comprehensively informed about the procedure, including its risks, benefits, and alternatives. Choice B is incorrect because it does not emphasize the validation of client understanding, which is crucial for informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as the client, not a family member, should provide consent unless specific circumstances dictate otherwise. Choice D is incorrect because although ensuring the consent form is signed and filed is important, it does not address the primary responsibility of confirming the client's comprehension and ensuring informed consent.

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