Nursing Elites

1. To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should:

• A. Place the bed in a high horizontal position
• B. Use a low bed position
• C. Bend at the waist
• D. Keep the bed flat and at a comfortable working height

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should place the bed in a high horizontal position to promote better body mechanics. This positioning helps reduce strain on the nurse's back and promotes proper alignment while working. Using a low bed position can lead to awkward bending and increased risk of musculoskeletal injuries. Bending at the waist is discouraged as it can strain the back. Keeping the bed flat and at a comfortable working height may not provide the optimal ergonomic setup needed to prevent injury.

2. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?

• A. A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
• B. Presence of serous drainage
• C. Edema around the wound
• D. Absence of granulation tissue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.

3. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

4. A nurse receives a report about a client receiving IV fluids infusing at 125 mL/hr but notes they have only received 80 mL over the last 2 hours. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check IV tubing for obstruction
• B. Increase the flow rate
• C. Change the IV site
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. This step is crucial in ensuring that the IV fluids are flowing properly and that there are no blockages preventing the correct infusion rate. Increasing the flow rate (Choice B) without confirming the tubing's status could lead to potential complications if there is indeed an obstruction. Changing the IV site (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation unless there are specific clinical indications. Notifying the physician (Choice D) can be done after checking the tubing for obstruction, as the physician may need to be informed depending on the findings.

5. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

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