Nursing Elites

1. To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should:

• A. Place the bed in a high horizontal position
• B. Use a low bed position
• C. Bend at the waist
• D. Keep the bed flat and at a comfortable working height

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should place the bed in a high horizontal position to promote better body mechanics. This positioning helps reduce strain on the nurse's back and promotes proper alignment while working. Using a low bed position can lead to awkward bending and increased risk of musculoskeletal injuries. Bending at the waist is discouraged as it can strain the back. Keeping the bed flat and at a comfortable working height may not provide the optimal ergonomic setup needed to prevent injury.

2. A nurse is providing education about cultural and religious traditions and rituals related to death for the assistive personnel on the unit. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. People who practice Judaism stay with the body of the deceased until burial.
• B. People who practice Islam avoid cremation of the body.
• C. People who practice Buddhism prefer to have a brief funeral service.
• D. People who practice Hinduism prefer to have the body embalmed before cremation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In Judaism, it is customary for the body to be attended to by family or members of the community until burial. This practice is rooted in the belief of providing respect and care to the deceased individual. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the cultural and religious traditions related to death for people who practice Islam, Buddhism, and Hinduism, respectively. People who practice Islam generally avoid cremation and opt for burial, Buddhists may have varying funeral service preferences, and Hindus often practice cremation without embalming the body.

3. During a blood transfusion, which observation indicates that the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction?

• A. The client reports feeling warm and flushed.
• B. The client develops a rash on the chest and back.
• C. The client experiences chills and a fever.
• D. The client complains of back pain and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complaints of back pain and shortness of breath are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a hemolytic reaction. This reaction can lead to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing back pain and shortness of breath due to clot formation in the blood vessels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery. Warmth, flushing, rash, chills, and fever are more commonly associated with allergic reactions or febrile non-hemolytic reactions during transfusions. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect in this context.

4. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

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