Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. Which food should the healthcare provider advise the client to limit?

• A. Chicken breast
• B. Apple
• C. Rice
• D. Banana

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chicken breast. In chronic kidney disease, a low-protein diet is often recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Chicken breast is a high-protein food that should be limited in such diets to help manage the progression of kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are low in protein and are generally suitable for individuals following a low-protein diet. Apples, rice, and bananas can be included in moderation as part of a balanced diet for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

2. The LPN is caring for a client who has been placed in restraints. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client’s circulation is checked every hour.
• B. Document the reason for the restraints every 4 hours.
• C. Provide range-of-motion exercises every 2 hours.
• D. Release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse to take when caring for a client in restraints is to release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning. This practice helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and impaired circulation by ensuring adequate blood flow and preventing skin breakdown. Checking the client's circulation every hour (Choice A) is important, but releasing the restraints for repositioning takes precedence to prevent serious complications. While documenting the reason for restraints (Choice B) is essential for legal and documentation purposes, it is not as critical as providing necessary care to the client's physical well-being. Providing range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not address the immediate risks associated with prolonged restraint use.

3. While reviewing the medical records of a client with a pressure ulcer, a nurse should expect which of the following findings?

• A. Albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
• C. WBC count of 6,000/mm³
• D. Blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An albumin level below 3.5 g/dL indicates protein deficiency, which can impair wound healing and contribute to pressure ulcer formation. Hemoglobin level and WBC count are not directly associated with pressure ulcers. Blood glucose level, while important for overall health, is not specifically linked to pressure ulcer development.

4. A client is being taught about the use of an incentive spirometer. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?

• A. I will use the spirometer every hour while awake.
• B. I will blow into the spirometer as hard as I can.
• C. I should feel dizzy when using the spirometer.
• D. I will only use the spirometer if I feel short of breath.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using the spirometer every hour while awake is an effective way to prevent respiratory complications. This frequency helps in maintaining lung function and preventing atelectasis. Choice B is incorrect because blowing too hard into the spirometer can lead to hyperventilation and dizziness, making choice C also incorrect. Choice D is wrong as waiting to use the spirometer only when feeling short of breath may not provide optimal lung expansion and can lead to respiratory issues.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

• A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
• B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
• D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

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