a client with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low protein diet which food should the lpnlvn advise the client to limit
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. A client with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. Which food should the healthcare provider advise the client to limit?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chicken breast. In chronic kidney disease, a low-protein diet is often recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Chicken breast is a high-protein food that should be limited in such diets to help manage the progression of kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are low in protein and are generally suitable for individuals following a low-protein diet. Apples, rice, and bananas can be included in moderation as part of a balanced diet for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

2. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.

3. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely to assess for complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the risk of hyperglycemia. TPN solutions are high in glucose, and clients may be at risk of developing hyperglycemia if the infusion rate is too high or if there are underlying issues such as insulin resistance. Monitoring serum potassium (choice A) is important but not the most crucial value to monitor in clients receiving TPN. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum calcium (choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN administration and are less likely to be affected compared to blood glucose levels.

4. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer potassium chloride intravenously to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is most important?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution. Potassium chloride should never be administered as a rapid IV push as it can lead to severe complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. Diluting the medication and administering it slowly helps reduce the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) and checking urine output (Choice B) are important aspects of patient assessment but not the most crucial when administering potassium chloride. Administering potassium chloride as a rapid IV push (Choice C) is dangerous and can result in serious harm to the client.

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