a nurse in a providers office is preparing to assess a clients skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination which of the following findings sh
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Fundamentals HESI

1. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.

2. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, when the client is unconscious and unable to make decisions, a notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner should be given priority to guide the direction of care. Advance directives provide legal documentation of the client's wishes regarding healthcare decisions in situations where they cannot express their preferences. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) outlines general principles but does not provide specific guidance on the client's care. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) are important but may not reflect the client's preferences. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are useful for standard care pathways but do not address individual client wishes.

3. A client is on bed rest following an abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings indicates the need to increase the frequency of position changes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of a non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter is a concerning finding as it indicates possible pressure ulcer formation. This finding necessitates an increase in the frequency of position changes to prevent skin breakdown. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the need for increased position changes. A flat rash, ecchymosis, and petechiae may have different causes and would not be addressed by changing the client's position more frequently.

4. Which statement by the mother indicates that the mother understands safety precautions with her four-month-old infant and her 4-year-old child?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because having the 4-year-old help feed the four-month-old a bottle in the kitchen while the mother makes supper shows supervision of the infant by the older child in a safe environment. This choice indicates that the mother understands safety precautions by involving the older child in a caregiving task under her supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they involve unsafe practices such as placing the infant on the floor unsupervised, positioning the infant car seat in the front seat, and not providing direct supervision of the children during naptimes.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

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