Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

• A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• D. Simvastatin (Zocor)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

2. When preparing an injection for opioid medication, a nurse draws 1mL from a 2mL vial. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Ask another nurse to observe medication wastage
• B. Document the amount of medication drawn on the MAR
• C. Dispose of the remaining medication in a sharps container
• D. Administer the entire vial of medication to avoid wastage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When drawing medication from a vial, especially for controlled substances like opioids, any wastage must be witnessed by another healthcare professional to ensure accuracy, prevent diversion, and maintain safety standards. This process is crucial for proper documentation and accountability. Recording the amount drawn on the Medication Administration Record (MAR) is important for tracking administered doses and preventing errors. Disposing of the remaining medication in a sharps container is not recommended as it does not address proper wastage documentation. Administering the entire vial of medication just to avoid wastage is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or overdose in the patient.

3. A client is admitted to a voluntary hospital mental health unit due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for 2 days and now states, 'I demand to be released now!' The appropriate action is for the nurse to:

• A. You cannot be released because you are still suicidal.
• B. You can be released only if you sign a no-suicide contract.
• C. Let's discuss your decision to leave and then we can prepare you for discharge.
• D. You have a right to sign out as soon as we get an order from the healthcare provider's discharge order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to engage the client in a discussion about their decision to leave and then prepare them for discharge. This approach allows the nurse to assess the client's current state, address concerns, and plan for a safe discharge. Option A is incorrect because it does not involve a therapeutic communication approach and may escalate the situation. Option B is incorrect as it places a condition on the client for release, which is not recommended in this situation. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care.

4. A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding 'stronger pain medications.' What initial action is most important for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction.
• B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.
• C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema.
• D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important initial action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. This assessment helps evaluate the severity of the infiltration and the circulation in the affected arm. Asking about past history of drug abuse or addiction (Choice A) is not the priority when addressing acute arm pain and infiltration. Compressing the infiltrated tissue (Choice C) may exacerbate the pain and is not recommended as the first step. Evaluating the extent of ecchymosis (Choice D) is not as critical as assessing the circulation in the affected arm, which is better addressed by measuring pulse volume and capillary refill.

5. A nurse is counseling an older adult who describes having difficulty with several issues. Which of the following problems verbalized by the client should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. “I spent my whole life dreaming about retirement, and now I wish I had my job back.”
• B. “It’s been so stressful for me to have to depend on my child to help around the house.”
• C. “I just heard my friend Al die. That’s the third one in 3 months.”
• D. “I keep forgetting which medications I have taken during the day.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The statement expressing the loss of friends is the priority issue as it indicates potential grief and emotional distress. Losing multiple friends within a short period can have a profound impact on an older adult's emotional well-being. Option A expresses regret but does not indicate an immediate emotional crisis. Option B focuses on stress related to dependence, which is important but not as urgent as coping with loss. Option D highlights a memory concern, which is significant but does not address the emotional impact of loss.

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