Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

• A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• D. Simvastatin (Zocor)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

3. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

4. A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should be asked to assess the quality of the pain?

• A. Is your pain sharp or dull?
• B. Is your pain constant or intermittent?
• C. On a scale from 1 to 10, how severe is your pain?
• D. Where exactly is your pain located?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Asking whether the pain is sharp or dull helps in determining the quality of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate chronic issues. Choices B, C, and D focus on different aspects of pain assessment. Option B pertains to the pattern of pain, either constant or intermittent. Option C addresses the severity of pain on a numerical scale. Option D inquires about the location of pain. While all these questions are essential in pain assessment, when specifically evaluating the quality of pain, distinguishing between sharp and dull sensations is crucial.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient with a spinal cord injury and notices that the patient's hips have a tendency to rotate externally when the patient is supine. Which device will the healthcare provider use to help prevent injury secondary to this rotation?

• A. Hand rolls
• B. A trapeze bar
• C. A trochanter roll
• D. Hand-wrist splints

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A trochanter roll is the correct choice as it is used to prevent external rotation of the hips when the patient is in a supine position. Hand rolls (Choice A) are incorrect because they are used to prevent contractures of the fingers, wrist, and hand. A trapeze bar (Choice B) is not the correct option as it helps patients change positions in bed and aids with movement, not specifically for hip rotation. Hand-wrist splints (Choice D) are also incorrect as they are used to maintain the functional position of the wrist and hand, not to address hip rotation.

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