a nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days post op following a cholecystectomy the nurse suspects a wound infection because the drainage on the dres
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank

1. A client who is 3 days post-op following a cholecystectomy has yellow and thick drainage on the dressing. The nurse suspects a wound infection. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Purulent. Purulent drainage is thick, yellow, and indicates the presence of infection. This type of drainage is typically seen in infected wounds. Choice B, Serous drainage, is thin, clear, and watery, which is normal in the initial stages of wound healing. Sanguineous drainage, choice C, is bright red and indicates fresh bleeding. Serosanguineous drainage, choice D, is pale pink to red and is a mixture of blood and serous fluid commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

2. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which finding should the nurse expect to observe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. In hypothyroidism, there is a decrease in metabolic rate, which can lead to weight gain. Heat intolerance (choice B) is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism. Increased appetite (choice C) and frequent diarrhea (choice D) are not typical findings in hypothyroidism. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to transfer a client who can bear weight on one leg from the bed to a chair. After securing a safe environment, which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client for orthostatic hypotension is the priority before transferring a client who can bear weight on one leg. This assessment helps identify the risk of dizziness or fainting when the client moves from a supine to an upright position. Obtaining a gait belt may be necessary for the transfer, but assessing for orthostatic hypotension comes first to ensure the safety of the client. Ensuring the client has proper footwear is important for preventing falls during ambulation but is not the immediate next step in this situation. Asking the client to perform range-of-motion exercises is not necessary before the transfer and does not address the immediate safety concern of orthostatic hypotension.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.

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The nurse is providing care for a client with a wound infection. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?
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