HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client who is 3 days post-op following a cholecystectomy has yellow and thick drainage on the dressing. The nurse suspects a wound infection. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as:
- A. Purulent
- B. Serous
- C. Sanguineous
- D. Serosanguineous
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Purulent. Purulent drainage is thick, yellow, and indicates the presence of infection. This type of drainage is typically seen in infected wounds. Choice B, Serous drainage, is thin, clear, and watery, which is normal in the initial stages of wound healing. Sanguineous drainage, choice C, is bright red and indicates fresh bleeding. Serosanguineous drainage, choice D, is pale pink to red and is a mixture of blood and serous fluid commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.
2. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine."
- B. "I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago."
- C. "I flushed what I urinated at 7 a.m. and have saved all urine since."
- D. "I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.
3. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?
- A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
- B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
- C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
- D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.
4. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide to the client?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate can cause irritation to the esophagus, so it is important to take it with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to help prevent this irritation. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice B) may increase the risk of esophageal irritation as lying down can allow the medication to remain in the esophagus longer. Taking the medication with food (choice C) or on an empty stomach (choice D) can also interfere with the absorption of alendronate, reducing its effectiveness in treating osteoporosis.
5. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?
- A. Fat
- B. Fluid
- C. Flatus
- D. Hernias
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.
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