Nursing Elites

1. The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?

• A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
• B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
• C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
• D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct method for transferring an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. This technique provides a stable and safe transfer by utilizing the stronger side of the client to support the transfer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side, assisting the client to a standing position and placing the right hand on the armrest, and having the client pivot to the left before sitting do not address the client's left-sided weakness and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.

2. A client postoperative expresses pain during dressing changes. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes before changing the client’s dressing.
• B. Change the dressing less frequently.
• C. Apply a topical anesthetic before removing the dressing.
• D. Use a non-adherent dressing to reduce pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before changing the dressing is the priority action as it will help alleviate the client's pain and improve comfort. Choice B, changing the dressing less frequently, may hinder proper wound care and healing. Applying a topical anesthetic (choice C) might offer some relief but systemic pain medication is more effective. Using a non-adherent dressing (choice D) can reduce pain during dressing changes, but addressing immediate pain with medication is the most appropriate intervention in this case.

3. A nurse is inserting an IV catheter for a client that results in a blood spill on her gloved hand. The client has no documented bloodstream infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Carefully remove the gloves and follow with hand hygiene
• B. Continue with the procedure and clean hands later
• C. Remove the gloves, wash hands, and start over
• D. Use hand sanitizer and continue the procedure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to carefully remove the gloves and follow with hand hygiene. This is important to prevent potential contamination and maintain infection control practices. Option B is incorrect because cleaning hands later may lead to the spread of potential contaminants. Option C is unnecessary as starting over is not required if proper hand hygiene is performed. Option D is not sufficient in ensuring proper hygiene after a blood spill, as hand sanitizer may not effectively remove all contaminants.

4. The client is being instructed on how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. Which sequence is appropriate for teaching?

• A. Void a little, clean the meatus, then collect specimen
• B. Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream
• C. Clean the meatus, then urinate into container
• D. Void continuously and catch some of the urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for obtaining a clean catch urine specimen involves first cleaning the meatus to prevent contamination, then initiating voiding to catch the midstream urine. This method ensures that the sample is as uncontaminated as possible, making choice B the correct sequence. Option A is incorrect as cleaning the meatus should be done before voiding. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve catching a midstream urine sample. Option D is incorrect as it suggests catching urine throughout the entire voiding process, which may lead to contamination.

5. A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Abdominal tenderness
• D. Overdue menses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.

Similar Questions