Nursing Elites

1. The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?

• A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
• B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
• C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
• D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct method for transferring an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. This technique provides a stable and safe transfer by utilizing the stronger side of the client to support the transfer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side, assisting the client to a standing position and placing the right hand on the armrest, and having the client pivot to the left before sitting do not address the client's left-sided weakness and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with acute pancreatitis. Which finding is most concerning?

• A. Pain radiating to the back
• B. Blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg
• C. Elevated serum amylase
• D. Absent bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, a low blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg is the most concerning finding as it may indicate hypovolemia or shock, which are critical conditions requiring immediate intervention. Pain radiating to the back is a common symptom of pancreatitis but is not as immediately life-threatening as hypotension. Elevated serum amylase levels and absent bowel sounds are typical findings in acute pancreatitis and may indicate pancreatic inflammation and gastrointestinal motility issues, respectively, but they are not as acutely concerning as hypotension.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

4. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?

• A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
• B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
• C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
• D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.

5. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.

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