Nursing Elites

1. The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?

• A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
• B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
• C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
• D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct method for transferring an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. This technique provides a stable and safe transfer by utilizing the stronger side of the client to support the transfer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side, assisting the client to a standing position and placing the right hand on the armrest, and having the client pivot to the left before sitting do not address the client's left-sided weakness and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.

2. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

• A. purulent exudate
• B. warmth
• C. skin blanching
• D. bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream properly. Skin blanching, swelling, and coolness at the IV site are typical signs of infiltration. Purulent exudate (choice A) is associated with infection, warmth (choice B) can indicate phlebitis, and bleeding (choice D) may occur if the IV catheter punctures a blood vessel.

4. How can the LPN/LVN best handle the situation of a postoperative client being kept awake by a neighboring client with dementia who sings all night?

• A. Tell the neighboring client to stop singing.
• B. Close the doors to both clients' rooms at night.
• C. Give the complaining client the prescribed sedative as needed.
• D. Move the neighboring client to a room at the end of the hall.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best way to handle the situation in this scenario is to move the neighboring client to a room at the end of the hall. This solution is considerate to both clients because it addresses the issue by providing a quieter environment for the client with dementia while allowing the postoperative client to rest. Choice A is inappropriate as it does not address the root cause of the problem and may not be feasible or respectful. Choice B of closing the doors may not effectively reduce the noise disturbance. Choice C of giving the complaining client sedatives should be the last resort and not the initial solution, as it does not address the underlying issue causing the disturbance.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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