HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. The patient is immobilized after undergoing hip replacement surgery. Which finding will alert the nurse to monitor for hemorrhage in this patient?
- A. Thick, tenacious pulmonary secretions
- B. Low-molecular-weight heparin doses
- C. SCDs wrapped around the legs
- D. Elastic stockings (TED hose)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, which is low-molecular-weight heparin doses. After hip replacement surgery, patients are at risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility. Heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin are commonly used for prophylaxis against DVT. Monitoring for hemorrhage is crucial when administering anticoagulants. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to monitoring for hemorrhage in this scenario. Thick, tenacious pulmonary secretions (Choice A) may indicate respiratory issues, SCDs (Choice C) help prevent DVT but do not directly relate to hemorrhage monitoring, and elastic stockings (TED hose) (Choice D) are used for DVT prophylaxis but do not alert to hemorrhage.
2. Which patient will lead the nurse to select a nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility for a care plan?
- A. A patient who is completely immobile
- B. A patient who is not completely immobile
- C. A patient at risk for single-system involvement
- D. A patient who is at risk for multisystem problems
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility is appropriate for a patient who has some limitations in mobility but is not completely immobile. Choice A is incorrect as a patient who is completely immobile would not have impaired physical mobility but rather no physical mobility at all. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not directly relate to the defining characteristics of Impaired physical mobility, which involve limitations in movement and physical activity.
3. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
- B. Grasp the knot of the sutures with forceps.
- C. Cut the sutures close to the skin on one side.
- D. Pull out the sutures with forceps in one piece.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.
4. A client is on bed rest following an abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings indicates the need to increase the frequency of position changes?
- A. Flat rash on the client's ankle
- B. Non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter
- C. Ecchymosis on the client's left shoulder
- D. Petechiae on the client's right anterior thigh
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of a non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter is a concerning finding as it indicates possible pressure ulcer formation. This finding necessitates an increase in the frequency of position changes to prevent skin breakdown. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the need for increased position changes. A flat rash, ecchymosis, and petechiae may have different causes and would not be addressed by changing the client's position more frequently.
5. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?
- A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
- B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
- C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
- D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.
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