HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. The LPN/LVN observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack.
- B. Instruct the client regarding the importance of the covering.
- C. Reapply the covering after filling it with fresh ice.
- D. Ask the client how long the ice pack was applied to the skin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client removes the covering from an ice pack is to observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack. This assessment is crucial to check for any skin damage or adverse reactions resulting from direct contact with the ice pack. Instructing the client about the importance of the covering (Choice B) can follow the skin assessment. Reapplying the covering (Choice C) before skin assessment may potentially cause harm. Asking the client about the duration of ice application (Choice D) is not the immediate priority; ensuring skin integrity is the primary concern.
2. A nurse is collecting data from an older adult client as part of a neurologic examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect as changes associated with aging?
- A. Slower light touch sensation
- B. Some vision and hearing decline
- C. Slower fine finger movement
- D. Some short-term memory decline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: As individuals age, it is common to experience changes in vision and hearing, leading to some decline in these senses. Slower light touch sensation and slower fine finger movement are also typical findings associated with aging. However, some short-term memory decline is more closely related to cognitive aging rather than typical age-related changes in the neurologic system. Therefore, the correct answer is the decline in vision and hearing. Decreased risk of depression is not a typical finding in aging; in fact, the risk of depression may increase as individuals age.
3. While auscultating a client's abdomen, a nurse hears a blowing sound over the aorta. The nurse should identify this sound as which of the following?
- A. Gallop
- B. Bruit
- C. Thrill
- D. Murmur
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit. A bruit is a blowing sound indicating turbulent blood flow, often heard over the aorta. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A gallop is a cardiac sound resembling the sound of a galloping horse. A thrill is a vibration felt on palpation, and a murmur is a swooshing or whooshing sound heard during auscultation of the heart or blood vessels. In this scenario, the blowing sound over the aorta specifically indicates a bruit, which signifies turbulent blood flow and should be further assessed by the healthcare provider.
4. A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should be asked to assess the quality of the pain?
- A. Is your pain sharp or dull?
- B. Is your pain constant or intermittent?
- C. On a scale from 1 to 10, how severe is your pain?
- D. Where exactly is your pain located?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Asking whether the pain is sharp or dull helps in determining the quality of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate chronic issues. Choices B, C, and D focus on different aspects of pain assessment. Option B pertains to the pattern of pain, either constant or intermittent. Option C addresses the severity of pain on a numerical scale. Option D inquires about the location of pain. While all these questions are essential in pain assessment, when specifically evaluating the quality of pain, distinguishing between sharp and dull sensations is crucial.
5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access