Nursing Elites

1. Does the probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increase with the age of the parents?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Advanced parental age, particularly maternal age, is associated with an increased risk of Down's syndrome in offspring. As parents get older, the likelihood of having a child with Down's syndrome increases. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the risk of Down's syndrome is known to rise with parental age, especially maternal age, due to the increased likelihood of chromosomal abnormalities during egg formation.

2. Do sebaceous glands cause a developing organism to grow arms or wings, skin, or scales?

• A. True
• B. False
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: False. Sebaceous glands are associated with the skin's oil production and have no role in the development of limbs or body coverings. Sebaceous glands primarily produce sebum, an oily substance that lubricates and waterproofs the skin and hair. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sebaceous glands do not influence the growth of arms, wings, skin, or scales in a developing organism.

3. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

• A. Group B strep culture
• B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
• C. Rubella titer
• D. Blood type and Rh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

4. The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and –2. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this assessment?

• A. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• B. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• C. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
• D. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.

5. A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was 1500 ml. When evaluating the woman’s vital signs, which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse?

• A. Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 beats per minute (bpm), respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg.
• B. Temperature 37.4°C, heart rate 88 bpm, respirations 36 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 126/68 mm Hg.
• C. Temperature 38°C, heart rate 80 bpm, respirations 16 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg.
• D. Temperature 36.8°C, heart rate 60 bpm, respirations 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An estimated blood loss (EBL) of 1500 ml following a vaginal birth is significant and can lead to hypovolemia. The vital signs provided in option A (Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 bpm, respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg) indicate tachycardia and hypotension, which are concerning signs of hypovolemia due to excessive blood loss. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased blood volume, and hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion. Options B, C, and D do not exhibit the same level of concern for hypovolemia. Option B shows tachypnea, which can be a result of pain or anxiety postpartum. Option C and D have vital signs within normal limits, which are not indicative of the body's response to significant blood loss.

Similar Questions