Nursing Elites

1. Does the probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increase with the age of the parents?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Advanced parental age, particularly maternal age, is associated with an increased risk of Down's syndrome in offspring. As parents get older, the likelihood of having a child with Down's syndrome increases. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the risk of Down's syndrome is known to rise with parental age, especially maternal age, due to the increased likelihood of chromosomal abnormalities during egg formation.

2. What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for males?

• A. XX
• B. XYY
• C. XY
• D. XXY

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: XY. In males, the typical sex chromosome pattern consists of one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. Choice A (XX) is the sex chromosome pattern for females. Choice B (XYY) is a chromosomal disorder where males have an extra Y chromosome. Choice D (XXY) is the sex chromosome pattern associated with Klinefelter syndrome, a condition where males have an extra X chromosome.

3. Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called:

• A. monozygotic (MZ) twins.
• B. fraternal twins.
• C. non-identical twins.
• D. dizygotic (DZ) twins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, occur when a single zygote splits into two embryos, leading to two genetically identical individuals. Choice B, fraternal twins, are twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, resulting in non-identical siblings. Choice C, non-identical twins, is not a common term used to describe this type of twinning. Choice D, dizygotic (DZ) twins, refer to twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, leading to non-identical twins.

4. A newborn is 24 hours old, and a healthcare provider is caring for them. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider report to the provider?

• A. Hgb 20 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin 2 mg/dL
• C. Platelets 200,000/mm3
• D. WBC count 32,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: WBC count 32,000/mm3. A WBC count of 32,000/mm3 is significantly elevated in a newborn and could indicate an infection, which needs immediate attention and intervention. High white blood cell counts in newborns can be concerning as they may suggest an ongoing infection or other underlying issues that require prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and would not typically warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Hgb levels of 20 g/dL (Choice A) are high for newborns, but this is not as concerning as a significantly elevated WBC count. Bilirubin levels of 2 mg/dL (Choice B) are within normal limits for a newborn and do not indicate immediate issues. Platelet count of 200,000/mm3 (Choice C) is also within the normal range for a newborn and would not require immediate reporting.

5. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:

• A. insomnia and nausea.
• B. infertility and impotence.
• C. Down syndrome.
• D. Turner syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.

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