once the testes have developed in the embryo they begin to produce male sex hormones or
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

2. The embryo and fetus develop within a protective _______ in the uterus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the amniotic sac. The amniotic sac is a fluid-filled structure that surrounds and protects the developing embryo and fetus in the uterus. It provides a cushion against external pressure, allows for movement and growth, and helps maintain a stable environment for the developing fetus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the placenta and serves as a conduit for nutrients and waste; the neural tube is a structure that forms the central nervous system in early embryonic development; and the embryonic disk is a structure that forms during gastrulation, one of the early stages of embryonic development.

3. The nurse is providing care for a newborn who was delivered vaginally assisted by forceps. The nurse observes red marks on the head with swelling that does not cross the suture line. Which condition should the nurse document in the medical record?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cephalhematoma. Cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between the skull bone and periosteum that does not cross the suture line. It often occurs due to birth trauma, such as forceps delivery, leading to localized swelling. Caput succedaneum (Choice A) is diffuse swelling of the scalp that may cross suture lines and is typically present at birth. Hydrocephalus (Choice B) is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain's ventricles. Microcephaly (Choice D) is a condition characterized by a smaller than average head size and may be present at birth or develop later in infancy.

4. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is receiving teaching about expected changes during pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nasal stuffiness is a common symptom during pregnancy due to increased blood flow and hormonal changes. This symptom is caused by the increased blood volume and hormonal changes that lead to swelling of the nasal passages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stomach emptying rate does not significantly change during pregnancy; the uterus does not double in size at 24 weeks but rather grows steadily, and nipples typically darken in color due to increased pigmentation.

5. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.

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