Nursing Elites

1. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

• A. androgens
• B. genotypes
• C. blastocysts
• D. teratogens

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

2. A client has experienced a fetal demise following a vaginal delivery at term. What should the nurse advise the client?

• A. “You can bathe and dress your baby if you’d like to.”
• B. “If you don’t hold the baby, it will make letting go much harder.”
• C. “You should name the baby so he/she can have an identity.”
• D. “I’m sure you will be able to have another baby when you’re ready.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a fetal demise, allowing the parents to bathe and dress their baby can offer them a sense of closure and help them in their grieving process. This act can provide a tangible way for the parents to bond with their baby and create lasting memories. Option B is incorrect because each individual may have different emotional needs and holding the baby may not be appropriate or helpful for everyone. Option C, while well-intentioned, may not be suitable for all parents as naming the baby could be emotionally challenging. Option D is insensitive as it overlooks the grieving process of losing a baby by suggesting a replacement.

3. A client who is 24 weeks gestation arrives at the clinic reporting swollen hands. On examination, the nurse notes the client has had a rapid weight gain over six weeks. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Review the client's previous blood pressures in the chart.
• B. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
• C. Observe and time the client's contractions.
• D. Examine the client for pedal edema.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen hands and rapid weight gain could be signs of preeclampsia, so the next step is to check the client's blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure is a key indicator in assessing for preeclampsia in pregnancy. Reviewing the client's previous blood pressures may provide additional context but obtaining the current blood pressure is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing and timing contractions are not relevant in this scenario as the client is not presenting with signs of active labor. Examining for pedal edema is important in assessing for fluid retention, but obtaining the blood pressure takes precedence in this case due to the potential seriousness of preeclampsia.

4. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?

• A. A client with a urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours
• B. A client reporting abdominal cramping during breastfeeding
• C. A client receiving magnesium sulfate with absent deep tendon reflexes
• D. A client reporting lochia rubra requiring changing perineal pads every 3 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in a client receiving magnesium sulfate, absent deep tendon reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, which requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are common postpartum occurrences that do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. A urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours, abdominal cramping during breastfeeding, and frequent changing of perineal pads due to lochia rubra are within the expected range of postpartum recovery and do not indicate an urgent need for provider notification.

5. A client is 4 hours postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer indomethacin
• B. Insert a second 22-gauge IV catheter.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hypovolemic shock, there is decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula can help improve oxygenation and support tissue perfusion. Indomethacin (Choice A) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and is not indicated in the management of hypovolemic shock. Inserting a second 22-gauge IV catheter (Choice B) may be necessary for fluid resuscitation, but oxygen administration takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice C) may be considered for monitoring urinary output, but it is not the priority action in managing hypovolemic shock.

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