once the testes have developed in the embryo they begin to produce male sex hormones or
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

2. A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery with a complaint of contractions 5 minutes apart. While the client is in the bathroom changing into a hospital gown, the nurse hears the noise of a baby. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inspecting the client's perineum immediately is necessary to assess if the baby is being delivered, which would require urgent action. Pushing the call light for help (Choice A) may delay the assessment and immediate action needed. Notifying a healthcare provider (Choice C) might cause further delays, as the situation requires urgent attention. Turning on the infant warmer (Choice D) is not the priority; ensuring safe delivery and assessment of the baby's condition come first.

3. Which of the following statements is true of Down’s syndrome?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The likelihood of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases as the age of the parents increases, particularly the mother's age. Choice A is incorrect because Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, not a defect in the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as the symptoms of Down’s syndrome and sickle-cell anemia are different. Choice C is also incorrect as Down’s syndrome is not caused by a sexually transmitted infection during conception.

4. A client at 38 weeks of gestation has a prescription for intravaginal misoprostol. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Instructing the client to stay in a side-lying position after receiving misoprostol intravaginally is essential. This position helps keep the medication in place, allowing for better absorption. Choice B is incorrect because oxytocin administration is not typically indicated after misoprostol use. Choice C is incorrect as magnesium supplementation is not part of the standard protocol for misoprostol administration. Choice D is incorrect as having a full bladder is not necessary before initiating misoprostol therapy.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes 10 units per liter of oxytocin via IV drip to augment a client's labor because she is experiencing a prolonged active phase. Which finding would cause the nurse to immediately discontinue the oxytocin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds is too long and can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and other complications. This prolonged contraction duration suggests that the uterus is not relaxing adequately between contractions, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Choice B, 'Four contractions in 10 minutes,' is a sign of tachysystole, which is concerning but not as immediately critical as the prolonged contraction duration. Choice C, 'Uterus is soft,' is not a reason to discontinue oxytocin; in fact, it is a normal finding. Choice D, 'Early deceleration of fetal heart rate,' while indicating fetal distress, is not a direct result of the oxytocin and may require intervention but not immediate discontinuation of the medication.

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