once the testes have developed in the embryo they begin to produce male sex hormones or
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

2. Chromosomes are _____ structures found in cells.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures that carry genetic information in the form of DNA. They are typically seen as elongated structures when visualized under a microscope. Choice B, circular, is incorrect as chromosomes do not have a circular shape; they are linear. Choice C, cone-shaped, is not accurate as chromosomes do not resemble cones in any way. Choice D, octagonal, is also incorrect as chromosomes do not have an octagonal appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is A, rod-shaped, which accurately describes the shape of chromosomes.

3. According to a study in the year 2013 by Fellman, if a woman is a twin, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins, then:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the study, the chances of a woman bearing twins increase if she is a twin herself, if her mother was a twin, or if she has previously borne twins. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A is incorrect because the study does not specify that she will bear only monozygotic twins. Choice B is incorrect as the study does not mention any decrease in the chances of becoming pregnant. Choice C is incorrect because the study does not provide information about the woman's health status, focusing instead on the likelihood of bearing twins.

4. During the client’s initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.

5. A client at 30 weeks gestation reports that she has not felt the baby move in the last 24 hours. Concerned, she arrives in a panic at the obstetric clinic where she is immediately sent to the hospital. Which assessment warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 60 beats per minute is significantly below the normal range (110-160 bpm) and indicates fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention. This low heart rate can be a sign of fetal compromise or distress, necessitating urgent evaluation and intervention to ensure the well-being of the fetus. Choices B, C, and D do not indicate immediate fetal distress requiring urgent intervention. Ruptured amniotic membrane, onset of uterine contractions, and leaking amniotic fluid are important assessments but do not present an immediate threat to the fetus's life like a severely low fetal heart rate.

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