Nursing Elites

1. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

• A. androgens
• B. genotypes
• C. blastocysts
• D. teratogens

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

2. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

• A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
• B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
• C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
• D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

3. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
• B. Urinary Frequency
• C. Vulvar Lesions
• D. Malodorous Discharge

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

4. What is a procedure for using ultrasonic sound waves to create a picture of an embryo or fetus?

• A. Phenotype
• B. Sonogram
• C. Genotype
• D. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sonogram, also known as an ultrasound, is a procedure that utilizes sound waves to generate images of a developing embryo or fetus. This imaging technique is commonly used in prenatal care to monitor fetal development and identify any potential abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a phenotype refers to an individual's observable traits resulting from genetic and environmental influences, a genotype is an individual's genetic makeup, and an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is a blood test used to screen for certain birth defects.

5. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

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