once the testes have developed in the embryo they begin to produce male sex hormones or
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

2. What maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of spina bifida occulta in a newborn?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is a well-known risk factor for neural tube defects, including spina bifida occulta, making supplementation critical in prenatal care. Folic acid plays a crucial role in neural tube formation during early pregnancy. Short intervals between pregnancies do not directly impact the development of spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy and is not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. While tobacco use during pregnancy has various adverse effects, it is not the primary factor influencing the development of spina bifida occulta in newborns.

3. In the prenatal record, the nurse should record for the pregnant client who has a 3-year-old child at home, a term birth, a miscarriage at 10 weeks’ gestation, and a set of twins who died within 24 hours:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gravida 4, para 2.' Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. In this case, the client has been pregnant a total of 4 times, so gravida is 4. Para is the number of pregnancies that have reached viability, which is 2 in this case. The client has had a term birth and a set of twins who died within 24 hours, totaling 2 pregnancies that reached viability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the client's obstetric history based on the information provided.

4. A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL, hematocrit 29%, hepatitis surface antigen positive, Group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non-immune. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention in this scenario is to administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously. This is crucial to prevent Group B Streptococcus infection in the newborn during delivery. Option A, transfusing packed red blood cells, is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels provided. Option B, giving measles, mumps, rubella vaccine, is not necessary at this time. Option D, injecting hepatitis B immune globulin, is not appropriate for the conditions presented in the question.

5. A primigravida at 36 weeks gestation who is RH-negative experienced abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle collision. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Positive fetal hemoglobin testing' (D). Positive fetal hemoglobin testing (Kleihauer-Betke test) indicates fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which is critical in an RH-negative mother due to the risk of isoimmunization. This condition can lead to sensitization of the mother's immune system against fetal blood cells, potentially causing hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial for appropriate management and interventions. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this scenario. While monitoring fetal heart rate and contractions is important, the detection of fetal-maternal hemorrhage takes precedence due to the serious implications it poses for the current and future pregnancies of an RH-negative mother.

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