Nursing Elites

1. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

• A. androgens
• B. genotypes
• C. blastocysts
• D. teratogens

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

2. Are babies with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) often larger than normal, and so are their brains?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Always

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Babies with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) are typically smaller than normal, with smaller brains and developmental issues. Choice A is incorrect because babies with FAS are not larger than normal. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately reflect the typical characteristics of babies with FAS. Choice D is incorrect as babies with FAS are not always larger than normal.

3. The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and –2. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this assessment?

• A. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• B. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
• C. Cervix is effaced 3 cm and dilated 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
• D. Cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.

4. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
• B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
• C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
• D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

5. A client at 27 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine protein concentration of 200 mg/24 hr.
• B. Creatinine level of 0.8 mg/dL
• C. Hemoglobin level of 14.8 g/dL
• D. Platelet count of 60,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 60,000/mm3 is significantly low and can indicate HELLP syndrome, a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. HELLP syndrome requires prompt medical intervention to prevent serious maternal and fetal complications. The other findings listed are within normal limits or not directly related to the severe condition associated with HELLP syndrome.

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