once the testes have developed in the embryo they begin to produce male sex hormones or
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. Once the testes have developed in the embryo, they begin to produce male sex hormones, or _____.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Androgens are male sex hormones, such as testosterone, produced by the testes after they have developed in the embryo. Androgens are responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Genotypes refer to an individual's genetic makeup, not hormones. Blastocysts are early stage embryos, not male sex hormones. Teratogens are substances that can interfere with fetal development, not male sex hormones produced by the testes.

2. A nurse on a labor and delivery unit is providing teaching to a client who plans to use hypnosis to control labor pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypnosis can be an effective method of pain control during labor, especially if practiced during the prenatal period. Choice A is not specific to hypnosis and may not be directly related. Choice B is not essential for hypnosis and may not always be required. Choice D is incorrect as hypnosis has been shown to be beneficial for managing labor pain when done correctly, making it an inappropriate option to include in the teaching.

3. What information should the nurse include when teaching a client at 41 weeks of gestation about a non-stress test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.' The non-stress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring the fetal heart rate in response to its own movements. It helps determine if the fetus is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients through placental perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because confirming fetal lung maturity is typically determined through tests like amniocentesis, not the non-stress test. Choice C is incorrect because detecting fetal infection is not the primary purpose of a non-stress test. Choice D is incorrect because predicting maternal readiness for labor is not the purpose of the non-stress test; it focuses on fetal well-being.

4. When should a nurse on a labor and delivery unit instruct a newly licensed nurse to don gloves for a procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Performing a newborn's initial bath. Gloves should be worn during this procedure to protect against exposure to body fluids, such as amniotic fluid or blood. Assisting a mother with breastfeeding (Choice A) does not typically require gloves unless there are specific reasons for infection control. Administering vaccines (Choice C) and performing umbilical cord care (Choice D) are procedures that may require hand hygiene but not necessarily gloves, unless there is active bleeding or potential exposure to body fluids. The initial bath involves direct contact with body fluids, making it crucial to wear gloves for protection.

5. What is the primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth is to reduce heat loss from evaporation. This helps maintain the infant's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Choice A (Stimulates crying and lung expansion) is incorrect because drying the infant is not primarily done to stimulate crying but rather to prevent heat loss. Choice B (Removes maternal blood from the skin surface) is incorrect as the main reason is to prevent heat loss, not to remove maternal blood. Choice D (Increases blood supply to the hands and feet) is also incorrect as drying the infant is not intended to increase blood supply but rather to regulate body temperature.

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