Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is teaching a prenatal class about immunizations that newborns receive following birth. Which of the following immunizations should the provider include in the teaching?

• A. Hepatitis B
• B. Rotavirus
• C. Pneumococcal
• D. Varicella

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hepatitis B. Newborns receive the Hepatitis B vaccine shortly after birth to provide protection against the virus. Rotavirus, Pneumococcal, and Varicella vaccines are typically administered at later stages of infancy or childhood, not immediately after birth. Rotavirus vaccine helps prevent severe diarrhea, Pneumococcal vaccine protects against infections like pneumonia and meningitis, and Varicella vaccine prevents chickenpox. However, these vaccines are not part of the routine immunizations given to newborns immediately after birth.

2. A client is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg IM every 12 hours. The available concentration is dexamethasone 10 mg/mL. How many mL of dexamethasone should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use trailing zero.)

• A. 0.6 mL
• B. ---
• C. ---
• D. ---

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculation: (6 mg/dose) / (10 mg/mL) = 0.6 mL per dose. The correct answer is 0.6 mL. This calculation is obtained by dividing the dose needed (6 mg) by the concentration available (10 mg/mL). The resulting value is 0.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are not applicable as the correct answer has been calculated accurately.

3. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
• B. Recalculation of gestational age
• C. Evaluation of fetal growth
• D. Determination of fetal presentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

4. In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?

• A. Bleeding.
• B. Intense abdominal pain.
• C. Uterine activity.
• D. Cramping.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa but can be agonizing with abruptio placentae. While bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions, intense abdominal pain is a distinguishing feature of abruptio placentae. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions, but they are not the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae.

5. Genotypes are solely based on genetic information.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - FALSE. Genotypes are solely based on genetic information and do not reflect environmental influences. Phenotypes, on the other hand, result from the interaction of genetic and environmental factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because genotypes are not influenced by environmental factors, and they are determined by an individual's genetic makeup.

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