HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn
1. In the prenatal record, the nurse should record for the pregnant client who has a 3-year-old child at home, a term birth, a miscarriage at 10 weeks’ gestation, and a set of twins who died within 24 hours:
- A. Gravida 2, para 1.
- B. Gravida 3, para 3.
- C. Gravida 4, para 2.
- D. Gravida 5, para 4.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gravida 4, para 2.' Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. In this case, the client has been pregnant a total of 4 times, so gravida is 4. Para is the number of pregnancies that have reached viability, which is 2 in this case. The client has had a term birth and a set of twins who died within 24 hours, totaling 2 pregnancies that reached viability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the client's obstetric history based on the information provided.
2. When do mothers usually feel the first fetal movements during pregnancy?
- A. At 18-20 weeks
- B. During the first month
- C. Rarely
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mothers usually feel the first fetal movements, known as 'quickening,' around the 18th to 20th week of pregnancy. Feeling fetal movements during the first month is unlikely and uncommon. Therefore, option B is incorrect. Options C and D are also incorrect as mothers typically do feel fetal movements during pregnancy, just not during the first month.
3. Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?
- A. Biovular twins
- B. Fraternal twins
- C. Dizygotic (DZ) twins
- D. Monozygotic (MZ) twins
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.
4. A client is experiencing sore nipples from breastfeeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place a snug dressing on the client’s nipple when not breastfeeding
- B. Ensure the newborn’s mouth is wide open before latching to the breast
- C. Encourage the client to limit the newborn’s feeding to 10 minutes on each breast
- D. Instruct the client to begin the feeding with the nipple that is most tender
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ensuring the newborn's mouth is wide open before latching is crucial for achieving a proper latch, which can help reduce nipple soreness. Placing a snug dressing on the nipple when not breastfeeding (choice A) can lead to further irritation and hinder healing. Encouraging the client to limit the newborn’s feeding to 10 minutes on each breast (choice C) may not be adequate for effective feeding as infants should feed until they are satisfied. Instructing the client to begin feeding with the most tender nipple (choice D) can worsen the soreness as it may not allow the baby to feed effectively.
5. Why is a client with gestational diabetes being scheduled for an amniocentesis when the fetus has an estimated weight of eight pounds (3629 grams) at 36 weeks gestation? What information is the amniocentesis seeking to obtain?
- A. Presence of a neural tube defect.
- B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
- C. Gender of the fetus.
- D. Fetal lung maturity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An amniocentesis in this scenario is most likely being performed to assess fetal lung maturity. This is necessary when considering early delivery due to macrosomia (large fetal size), which is a common concern in gestational diabetes. Evaluating fetal lung maturity is crucial to determine if the fetus's lungs are developed enough to support breathing independently outside the womb. The presence of a neural tube defect and chromosomal abnormalities are not typically assessed through amniocentesis in this situation, and determining the gender of the fetus is not the primary purpose of the procedure here.
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