a nurse is assessing a newborn following a forceps assisted birth which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a compli
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HESI LPN

HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. A newborn is being assessed following a forceps-assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of the birth method?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Facial palsy is a known complication of forceps-assisted birth. During forceps delivery, pressure applied to the facial nerve can result in facial palsy. The newborn may present with weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is not directly related to forceps-assisted birth. Polycythemia (Choice B) is a condition characterized by an increased number of red blood cells and is not typically associated with forceps delivery. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (Choice D) is a lung condition that primarily affects premature infants who require mechanical ventilation and prolonged oxygen therapy, not a direct outcome of forceps-assisted birth.

2. Which of the following pairs of bases is present in the rungs of the ladder-like structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cytosine with guanine. In the DNA double helix, cytosine always pairs with guanine forming a base pair, and adenine pairs with thymine. These complementary base pairs form the rungs of the ladder-like structure of DNA. Choice B, Rhodamine with biotin, is incorrect as they are not base pairs found in DNA. Choice D, Serine with tyrosine, is incorrect as they are amino acids, not DNA bases. Choice C, Diaminopurine with ribozyme, is also incorrect as ribozyme is an enzyme, not a base, and diaminopurine is not one of the standard bases found in DNA.

3. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.

4. A client experiencing preterm labor is being taught about terbutaline by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. One of its common side effects is heart palpitations due to its action on beta receptors in the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect because blurred vision and ringing in the ears are not common side effects of terbutaline. Choice D is irrelevant to the side effects of terbutaline.

5. _____ is a type of estrogen, prescribed in the 1940s and 1950s to pregnant women, that is said to have caused testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer in some offspring.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is a synthetic estrogen that was prescribed to pregnant women in the 1940s and 1950s to prevent miscarriages. However, it was later discovered that DES exposure in utero could lead to health issues in offspring, including an increased risk of testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer. Choice A, Androsterone, is a steroid hormone produced in small amounts in humans and unlikely to be associated with the adverse effects described. Choice B, Adiponectin, is a protein hormone that plays a role in regulating glucose levels and fatty acid breakdown, not related to the adverse effects mentioned. Choice C, Progestin, is a synthetic form of progesterone used in birth control and hormone therapy, not linked to the specific health concerns associated with DES exposure.

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