HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. What causes cystic fibrosis?
- A. Sex-linked abnormality.
- B. Abnormality in the 21st pair of chromosomes.
- C. Recessive gene.
- D. Single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. This means that both parents must carry at least one copy of the faulty gene for a child to inherit the condition. Choice A is incorrect because cystic fibrosis is not linked to the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not caused by an abnormality in the 21st pair of chromosomes but by a specific gene mutation. Choice D is also incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not related to the Y chromosome, which is specific to males.
2. What is the most critical action in caring for the newborn immediately after birth?
- A. Keeping the airway clear.
- B. Fostering parent-newborn attachment.
- C. Drying the newborn and wrapping the infant in a blanket.
- D. Administering eye drops and vitamin K.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical action in caring for the newborn immediately after birth is keeping the airway clear. This is essential to ensure that the newborn can breathe effectively and prevent any respiratory distress. Fostering parent-newborn attachment, although important, is not the most critical action immediately after birth. Drying the newborn and wrapping the infant in a blanket is important for temperature regulation but is not as critical as maintaining a clear airway. Administering eye drops and vitamin K is typically done later and is not the most critical action immediately after birth.
3. A client is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg
- B. Urine output 100 mL in 1 hr
- C. Pulse 58/min
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methylergonovine can increase blood pressure, so it should be withheld if the client has hypertension. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mm Hg indicates hypertension and is a contraindication for administering methylergonovine. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and not contraindications for administering this medication. Urine output, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are not factors that determine the appropriateness of administering methylergonovine in this situation.
4. A client is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Polyuria
- C. Bilateral crackles
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilateral crackles. Bilateral crackles indicate respiratory complications, which can occur as an adverse effect of an epidural block with opioid analgesics. Hypotension (Choice A) is a common side effect of epidural opioids but is not typically monitored via crackles. Polyuria (Choice B) is excessive urination and is not directly associated with epidural blocks. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is high blood sugar levels and is not a typical adverse effect of epidural opioids.
5. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
- B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
- C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
- D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is critically low and can indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention.
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