HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. What causes cystic fibrosis?
- A. Sex-linked abnormality.
- B. Abnormality in the 21st pair of chromosomes.
- C. Recessive gene.
- D. Single segment found only on the Y chromosome.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. This means that both parents must carry at least one copy of the faulty gene for a child to inherit the condition. Choice A is incorrect because cystic fibrosis is not linked to the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not caused by an abnormality in the 21st pair of chromosomes but by a specific gene mutation. Choice D is also incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not related to the Y chromosome, which is specific to males.
2. What maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of spina bifida occulta in a newborn?
- A. Short interval between pregnancies
- B. Folic acid deficiency
- C. Preeclampsia
- D. Tobacco use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is a well-known risk factor for neural tube defects, including spina bifida occulta, making supplementation critical in prenatal care. Folic acid plays a crucial role in neural tube formation during early pregnancy. Short intervals between pregnancies do not directly impact the development of spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy and is not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. While tobacco use during pregnancy has various adverse effects, it is not the primary factor influencing the development of spina bifida occulta in newborns.
3. After a mother was diagnosed with gonorrhea immediately after delivery, what is an important goal of the nurse when providing care for her baby?
- A. Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum.
- B. Lubricate the eyes.
- C. Prevent the development of infection.
- D. Teach about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum. When a mother has gonorrhea, the baby can be infected during delivery, leading to ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause permanent blindness. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prevent this condition by treating the baby's eyes with an antibiotic prophylactically after birth. Choice B, lubricating the eyes, is not the primary goal in this situation as preventing infection takes precedence. Choice C, preventing the development of infection, is too broad and does not specifically address the potential complication of ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice D, teaching about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea, is important but not the immediate goal in this scenario where preventing ophthalmia neonatorum and potential blindness is the priority.
4. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome:
- A. are unlikely to die from cardiovascular problems by middle age.
- B. have no specific characteristic features.
- C. show deficits in cognitive development.
- D. are likely to have only 46 chromosomes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome often exhibit deficits in cognitive development. This is a common characteristic of Down syndrome, along with other health challenges. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of cardiovascular problems, contrary to being unlikely to die from them. Choice B is incorrect as Down syndrome is associated with specific characteristic features such as distinctive facial characteristics, making the statement that they have no specific features incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with Down syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes, not 46.
5. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?
- A. Regular heart rate and hypertension.
- B. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
- C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
- D. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.
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