HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. The _________ is the hollow organ within females in which the embryo and fetus develop.
- A. placenta
- B. ovum
- C. uterus
- D. amniotic sac
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: uterus. The uterus is the organ where the embryo implants and the fetus develops during pregnancy. The placenta (choice A) is an organ that develops during pregnancy and provides nutrients and oxygen to the fetus, but it is not the organ where the embryo and fetus physically develop. The ovum (choice B) is the female reproductive cell or egg that is fertilized by the sperm to form an embryo, but it is not the organ where the embryo and fetus develop. The amniotic sac (choice D) is a membrane filled with amniotic fluid that surrounds and protects the fetus, but it is not the organ where the embryo and fetus physically develop.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Nausea
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.
3. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed. Which symptom would be most concerning?
- A. Headache
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Dizziness
- D. Chest pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest pain in a client with hypertension is the most concerning symptom as it may indicate a myocardial infarction or other serious cardiac event related to hypertension. Immediate intervention is required to address potential life-threatening conditions. Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness are common symptoms associated with hypertension but are not typically indicative of an acute cardiac event requiring urgent attention.
4. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?
- A. Testicular examination
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Fecal occult blood
- D. Prostate-specific antigen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.
5. Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, what should be used to prevent injury to the suture line?
- A. Straw
- B. Spoon
- C. Syringe
- D. Cup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, a cup should be used to prevent injury to the suture line. Utensils such as straws, spoons, droppers, and syringes should be avoided as they can cause trauma to the surgical site. Using a cup reduces the risk of disrupting the sutures and promotes proper healing.