HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals
1. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.
2. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?
- A. At home I take my pills at 8:00 am.
- B. It costs a lot of money to buy all of these pills.
- C. I get so tired of taking pills every day.
- D. This is a new pill I have never taken before.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's statement that 'This is a new pill I have never taken before' indicates the need for further assessment by the nurse to ensure the medication is correct and safe. Choices A, B, and C do not raise immediate concerns about the medication order; therefore, they are incorrect. Choice A simply provides information about the client's usual medication schedule, choice B is related to the cost of the pills, and choice C expresses fatigue from taking pills, but none of these statements suggest a potential issue with the new medication.
3. Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. That means you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed.
- B. Your blood vessels are becoming dilated and removing the heat from the site.
- C. We will increase the temperature by 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm.
- D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice (D) describes thermal adaptation, which occurs 20 to 30 minutes after heat application. The body's receptors adjust to the constant heat exposure, leading to a decreased sensation of warmth. Choices (A) and (B) provide inaccurate information regarding the situation, while choice (C) is not physiologically sound and could potentially harm the client by increasing the temperature unnecessarily.
4. What intervention should the healthcare provider include in the plan of care for a client receiving treatment with an Unna's paste boot for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency?
- A. Check capillary refill of toes on the lower extremity with the Unna's paste boot.
- B. Apply dressing to the wound area before applying the Unna's paste boot.
- C. Wrap the leg from the knee down towards the foot.
- D. Remove the Unna's paste boot every 8 hours to assess wound healing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When an Unna's paste boot is applied for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency, it is crucial to check the capillary refill of the toes on the lower extremity to ensure adequate circulation. The Unna's paste boot can become rigid after drying, potentially affecting circulation distally. Monitoring capillary refill helps assess the perfusion status of the distal extremity and ensures that the treatment is not compromising circulation to the toes.
5. A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client’s kidney function?
- A. Monitor the client’s urine output
- B. Check for abdominal tenderness
- C. Evaluate the client’s fluid intake
- D. Inspect the client’s skin for edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys’ ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.
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