Nursing Elites

1. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

2. When performing sterile wound care in the acute care setting, the nurse obtains a bottle of normal saline from the bedside table that is labeled 'opened' and dated 48 hours prior to the current date. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Use the normal saline solution once more and then discard.
• B. Obtain a new sterile syringe to draw up the labeled saline solution.
• C. Use the saline solution and then relabel the bottle with the current date.
• D. Discard the saline solution and obtain a new unopened bottle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing sterile wound care, it is essential to use only newly opened and unexpired solutions to maintain sterility and prevent infections. The normal saline solution obtained by the nurse is labeled 'opened' and dated 48 hours prior to the current date, making it no longer considered sterile. The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discard the saline solution and obtain a new unopened bottle to ensure the safety and effectiveness of wound care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reusing an already opened and outdated solution or attempting to relabel it with a current date can compromise patient safety and increase the risk of infection.

3. Earlier this morning, an elderly Hispanic female was discharged to a LTC facility. The family members are now gathered in the hallway outside her room. What is the best action?

• A. Ask the family to wait in the cafeteria while the next of kin makes the necessary arrangements
• B. Provide space and privacy for the family to share their concerns about the client’s discharge
• C. Ask the social worker to encourage the family to clear the hallway
• D. Explain to the family the client’s need for privacy so that she can make independent decisions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, providing space and privacy for the family allows them to openly discuss their concerns regarding the client’s discharge. It respects the family's need for support, communication, and involvement in the decision-making process, ultimately fostering a more effective and compassionate care environment.

4. A client who has been on bed rest for several days is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated.
• B. Apply antiembolism stockings as prescribed.
• C. Elevate the client's legs on a pillow.
• D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying antiembolism stockings as prescribed (B) is an effective intervention to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client on bed rest. While encouraging ambulation (A), elevating the legs (C), and performing passive range-of-motion exercises (D) are also beneficial, compression stockings are particularly effective in reducing the risk of DVT by promoting venous return and reducing stasis in the lower extremities.

5. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regimen. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
• B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
• C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
• D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the effectiveness of acupuncture is important, as the client has reported its success in managing her pain previously.

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