Nursing Elites

1. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

2. A client has a nursing diagnosis of Altered sleep patterns related to nocturia. Which client instruction is important for the nurse to provide?

• A. Decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal.
• B. Drink a glass of cranberry juice every day.
• C. Drink a glass of warm decaffeinated beverage at bedtime.
• D. Consult the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal. By reducing fluid intake before bedtime, the client can minimize the need to void during the night, which can help improve sleep patterns affected by nocturia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking cranberry juice or warm decaffeinated beverage at bedtime may increase fluid intake, exacerbating the nocturia issue. Consulting the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill should not be the first intervention, as it is important to try non-pharmacological approaches first.

3. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client’s self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
• B. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.
• C. Insert a Foley catheter to monitor urine output.
• D. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the priority intervention for a client with pulmonary edema to improve oxygenation and address respiratory distress. Adequate oxygenation is essential to support vital organ function. Administering furosemide intravenously, inserting a Foley catheter to monitor urine output, and positioning the client in a high Fowler's position are important interventions but are secondary to ensuring optimal oxygenation in this client with pulmonary edema.

5. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. What respiratory rate should the nurse document?

• A. 14
• B. 16
• C. 17
• D. 28

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should document a respiratory rate of 16. The second count of eight respirations in a 30-second interval is the most accurate as it was not interrupted by the client coughing. Therefore, this rate reflects the client's typical respiratory pattern and should be documented. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the interruption caused by the client coughing during the first count, which could have affected the accuracy of the result. The second count of eight respirations provides a more reliable indication of the client's respiratory rate.

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