Nursing Elites

1. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

2. The caregiver learns the use of a gait belt from the nurse for a woman with right-sided weakness. The caregiver demonstrates the skill. Which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned how to perform this procedure correctly?

• A. Standing on the woman's strong side, the caregiver is ready to hold the gait belt if any evidence of weakness is observed.
• B. Standing on the woman's weak side, the caregiver provides security by holding the gait belt from the back.
• C. Standing behind the woman, the caregiver provides balance by holding both sides of the gait belt.
• D. Standing slightly in front and to the right of the woman, the caregiver guides her forward by gently pulling on the gait belt.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Standing on the weak side of the client and holding the gait belt from the back provides better security and support during ambulation, reducing the risk of falls. This positioning allows the caregiver to offer stability and assistance without interfering with the client's movement, ensuring safe ambulation for the client with right-sided weakness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal support and security needed for a client with right-sided weakness. Standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back is the most effective way to assist the client while minimizing the risk of falls.

3. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
• B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
• C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
• D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate can be a sign of various issues postoperatively, including pain. Assessing and managing pain is crucial as it can lead to tachypnea. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can all contribute to an increased respiratory rate. Therefore, determining if pain is causing the tachypnea is the most important intervention to address the underlying cause. Encouraging ambulation, offering snacks, or forcing fluids are not the priority in this situation as pain assessment takes precedence in managing the increased respiratory rate.

4. The healthcare professional is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. What action should the healthcare professional take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to a painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's response to a painful stimulus indicates a purposeful reaction, which should be accurately documented as per the assessment findings. This documentation is essential for ongoing monitoring and communication of the client's condition to the healthcare team.

5. The healthcare professional in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague’s assignment. Which action should the healthcare professional implement?

• A. Communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse
• B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
• C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
• D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing a colleague accessing a patient's EHR without a legitimate reason is a violation of HIPAA, which protects patient confidentiality. The appropriate action in this scenario is to communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse immediately. The charge nurse can then address the issue internally and ensure that patient privacy is maintained. Reporting the incident through the appropriate channels within the healthcare facility is the most effective and professional way to handle such breaches of patient confidentiality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve addressing the issue internally within the healthcare facility. Reporting such incidents internally is essential to ensure that patient privacy is protected, and the matter is handled appropriately by healthcare authorities.

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