Nursing Elites

1. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

2. What intervention should the healthcare provider include in the plan of care for a client receiving treatment with an Unna's paste boot for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency?

• A. Check capillary refill of toes on the lower extremity with the Unna's paste boot.
• B. Apply dressing to the wound area before applying the Unna's paste boot.
• C. Wrap the leg from the knee down towards the foot.
• D. Remove the Unna's paste boot every 8 hours to assess wound healing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an Unna's paste boot is applied for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency, it is crucial to check the capillary refill of the toes on the lower extremity to ensure adequate circulation. The Unna's paste boot can become rigid after drying, potentially affecting circulation distally. Monitoring capillary refill helps assess the perfusion status of the distal extremity and ensures that the treatment is not compromising circulation to the toes.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Jugular vein distention.
• B. Crackles in the lungs.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Hepatomegaly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In right-sided heart failure, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood to the lungs leads to fluid backup in the systemic circulation, resulting in peripheral edema (swelling in lower extremities). While jugular vein distention (A) and hepatomegaly (D) can also occur in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is a hallmark sign due to fluid retention. Crackles in the lungs (B) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Dependent edema.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Nocturia.
• D. Orthopnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.

5. A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?

• A. Gallbladder disease
• B. Liver disease
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Skeletal muscle injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level following chest pain and shortness of breath is suggestive of myocardial infarction. AST is released from damaged heart muscle cells during a heart attack, indicating cardiac involvement. This enzyme is not specific to liver disease, gallbladder disease, or skeletal muscle injury in this clinical context.

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