Nursing Elites

1. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

2. The client reports still being unable to sleep a week after learning progressive muscle relaxation techniques. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Instruct the client to add regular exercise to the daily routine.
• B. Determine if the client has been keeping a sleep diary.
• C. Encourage the client to continue the routine until sleep is achieved.
• D. Ask the client to describe the routine currently followed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first assess the client's adherence to the original instructions. By asking the client to describe the routine, the nurse can evaluate if the technique is being correctly implemented before considering further interventions. This choice is correct as it focuses on assessing the client's current practice. Option A is incorrect as adding regular exercise may not address the issue with the relaxation technique. Option B is incorrect as determining if the client has been keeping a sleep diary does not directly address the efficacy of the relaxation technique. Option C is incorrect as blindly encouraging the client to continue may not be the best approach without understanding how the technique is being practiced.

3. A client with a diagnosis of hyperkalemia is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum sodium level.
• B. Serum potassium level.
• C. Serum calcium level.
• D. Serum glucose level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Monitoring the serum potassium level allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of this medication in lowering the elevated potassium levels. Serum sodium (A), calcium (C), and glucose (D) levels are not directly impacted by the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.

4. When caring for an immobile client, what nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. Risk for fluid volume deficit.
• B. Impaired gas exchange.
• C. Risk for impaired skin integrity.
• D. Altered tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for an immobile client, the nursing diagnosis with the highest priority is impaired gas exchange. This is because impaired gas exchange implies difficulty with breathing, which is essential for sustaining life. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for all bodily functions, and any impairment in gas exchange can lead to serious complications, making it the priority nursing diagnosis to address in an immobile client. Choices A, C, and D are important considerations as well when caring for an immobile client, but they are secondary to impaired gas exchange. Risk for fluid volume deficit may occur due to immobility, but ensuring proper gas exchange takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate survival. Risk for impaired skin integrity is a concern in immobile clients but does not pose an immediate threat to life like impaired gas exchange. Altered tissue perfusion is also critical but is usually a consequence of impaired gas exchange, reinforcing the priority of addressing gas exchange first.

5. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?

• A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
• B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
• C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
• D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a medication is administered via the IV route, the absorptive process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action. This results in a faster effect of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because changing the route of administration does not necessarily lead to increased tolerance or the need for a higher dose. Choice C is incorrect as changing the route of administration does not directly affect the protein binding of a medication. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the therapeutic index would actually reduce the risk of toxicity, not increase it.

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