Nursing Elites

1. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

2. What is the most effective way to implement a teaching plan?

• A. Teach the information that the learner wants to learn first.
• B. Streamline the teaching plan to include only essential information.
• C. Present to the learner all the necessary information to meet the objectives.
• D. Provide the learner with written material to review before teaching sessions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective way to implement a teaching plan is to teach the information that the learner wants to learn first. Teaching should be learner-centered, responding to the individual's needs and preferences. Learning is most successful when it addresses the specific interests and goals of the learner, as it increases motivation and engagement. By starting with what the learner is interested in, you can create a more effective and engaging learning experience.

3. The healthcare provider is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the healthcare provider use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to cleanse a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method is to irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline. Sterile normal saline is the preferred solution for wound cleaning as it is gentle and does not damage healthy tissues. It helps in removing debris and maintaining a moist environment conducive to healing. Povidone-iodine solution and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on tissues and delay wound healing. Removing eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing is a mechanical debridement method and should not be done without proper assessment and healthcare provider's order.

4. While changing a client’s post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given a positive MRSA result, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Force oral fluids
• B. Request a nutrition consult
• C. Initiate contact precautions
• D. Limit visitors to immediate family only

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initiating contact precautions is crucial in this situation to prevent the spread of MRSA infection. MRSA is a highly contagious bacterium that can spread through direct contact with an infected wound or by touching contaminated surfaces. By implementing contact precautions, the nurse can help contain the infection and protect other patients, healthcare workers, and visitors from being exposed to MRSA.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the client’s glycemic control?

• A. Monitor fasting blood glucose levels
• B. Check urine for ketones
• C. Evaluate hemoglobin A1c levels
• D. Assess the client’s dietary intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evaluating hemoglobin A1c levels is the most appropriate intervention to assess glycemic control in a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Hemoglobin A1c levels reflect the average blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months, providing valuable information for monitoring and managing diabetes. Monitoring fasting blood glucose levels (Choice A) is important for daily management but does not provide a long-term view like hemoglobin A1c. Checking urine for ketones (Choice B) is more relevant for assessing diabetic ketoacidosis. Assessing dietary intake (Choice D) is crucial for overall diabetes management but does not directly assess glycemic control.

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