HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to perform nasal tracheal suctioning for a client. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the healthcare professional to take?
- A. Hold the suction catheter with the non-dominant hand.
- B. Apply suctioning for 20 to 30 seconds.
- C. Place the catheter in a clean and dry location for later use.
- D. Use surgical asepsis when performing the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Using surgical asepsis when performing nasal tracheal suctioning is crucial to prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because the suction catheter should be held with the dominant hand to ensure better control and precision during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as suctioning should be applied for no longer than 10 to 15 seconds to avoid trauma to the mucous membranes. Choice C is incorrect as the catheter should be disposed of properly after single-use to prevent cross-contamination and infection.
2. Twenty minutes after starting a heat application, the client mentions that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the LPN/LVN?
- A. That indicates you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed.
- B. Your blood vessels are dilating and removing the heat from the site.
- C. We will increase the temperature by 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm.
- D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the correct response. The body's receptors adapt to the heat over time, which can explain why the client no longer perceives the warmth from the heating pad. This phenomenon is known as thermal adaptation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the client not feeling the warmth does not necessarily mean they have derived the maximum benefit. Choice B incorrectly states that blood vessels dilating remove heat, which is not accurate. Choice C suggests increasing the temperature when the pad no longer feels warm, which could potentially lead to burns or discomfort for the client.
3. A healthcare professional reviewing a client’s health record notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?
- A. Single
- B. Stat
- C. Routine
- D. Now
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A prescription for once-daily medication is considered routine as it is meant for regular, daily administration to maintain therapeutic levels in the body. Single prescriptions are for one-time use only. Stat prescriptions are for immediate administration in urgent situations, while now prescriptions are also for immediate use but may have varying levels of urgency depending on the patient's condition. In this case, since the prescription is for once daily use, it falls under the category of routine prescription.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
- B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
- C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
- D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.
5. A healthcare professional working in the emergency department is witnessing the signing of informed consent forms for the treatment of multiple clients during their shift. Which of the following signatures may the healthcare professional legally witness?
- A. A 16-year-old client who is married
- B. A 27-year-old who has schizophrenia
- C. An adoptive parent who brings in their 8-year-old child
- D. A 17-year-old mother who brings in her toddler
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 16-year-old who is married can legally sign an informed consent form. In this case, being married at 16 may indicate legal emancipation or the ability to consent to medical treatment. Choice B is incorrect because having schizophrenia doesn't automatically imply incapacity to provide informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as an adoptive parent does not have the legal authority to provide consent for medical treatment on behalf of a child without proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect as a 17-year-old mother would generally not have the legal capacity to give consent for her toddler, as parental consent is usually required for minors.
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