Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

2. A client who has an indwelling catheter reports a need to urinate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Check the catheter to see whether it is patent.
• B. Reassure the client that it is not possible for them to urinate.
• C. Re-catheterize the bladder with a larger-gauge catheter.
• D. Collect a urine specimen for analysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with an indwelling catheter reports a need to urinate, the nurse's initial action should be to check the catheter for patency. This is crucial to ensure that the catheter is not blocked, twisted, or kinked, which could lead to urinary retention. Reassuring the client without assessing the catheter could delay necessary interventions. Re-catheterizing the bladder with a larger-gauge catheter should not be the first step unless catheter patency is confirmed as an issue. Collecting a urine specimen for analysis is important but not the immediate priority when the client reports a need to urinate.

3. A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses are overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?

• A. The client’s temperature
• B. The client’s menses are overdue
• C. The client’s crying
• D. The client’s soft abdomen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An overdue menses might indicate a potential cause of abdominal pain, especially in the context of recent emotional stress. While the client's temperature, crying, and soft abdomen are important observations, the priority should be given to the overdue menses as it could provide crucial information related to the abdominal pain and the client's overall health status. The emotional distress may have a secondary impact on the physical symptoms, making the menstrual status a critical observation to address first.

4. At the time of the first dressing change, the client refuses to look at her mastectomy incision. The LPN tells the client that the incision is healing well, but the client refuses to talk about it. What would be an appropriate response to this client's silence?

• A. It is normal to feel angry and depressed, but the sooner you deal with this surgery, the better you will feel.
• B. Looking at your incision can be frightening, but facing this fear is a necessary part of your recovery.
• C. It is OK if you don't want to talk about your surgery. I will be available when you are ready.
• D. I will ask a woman who has had a mastectomy to come by and share her experiences with you.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, it's essential to acknowledge and respect the client's feelings and choices. Choice C is the most appropriate response as it validates the client's decision not to discuss the surgery while offering support and understanding. Giving the client space and letting them know you will be available when they are ready shows empathy and fosters trust. Choices A and B do not respect the client's autonomy and may come across as dismissive or pressuring. Choice D assumes the client needs advice from someone who has had a similar experience without considering the client's current emotional state and preferences.

5. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?

• A. At the time of admission
• B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
• C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
• D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.

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