a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the lpnlvn monitor closely while the clien
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1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

2. The LPN/LVN observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client removes the covering from an ice pack is to observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack. This assessment is crucial to check for any skin damage or adverse reactions resulting from direct contact with the ice pack. Instructing the client about the importance of the covering (Choice B) can follow the skin assessment. Reapplying the covering (Choice C) before skin assessment may potentially cause harm. Asking the client about the duration of ice application (Choice D) is not the immediate priority; ensuring skin integrity is the primary concern.

3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

4. A nurse discovers a small paper fire in a trash can in a client’s bathroom. The client has been taken to safety and the alarm has been activated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire. Using a class C fire extinguisher is appropriate for electrical fires, which can include fires involving electrical equipment or appliances. In this scenario, a paper fire in a trash can in the client's bathroom could potentially involve electrical components, making a class C fire extinguisher the most suitable choice. Option A, opening the windows, may help with ventilation but does not address the fire directly. Option C, removing electrical equipment, is a precautionary measure but does not address the immediate fire hazard. Option D, placing wet towels along the base of the door, is a strategy to prevent smoke from entering the room but does not extinguish the fire.

5. During an admission history assessment, a client informs the nurse about consuming herbal tea every afternoon at work to alleviate stress. What ingredient is likely present in the tea?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chamomile. Chamomile tea is commonly used for stress relief. Choice B, Ginseng, is not typically used in teas for stress relief but for energy and immune system support. Choice C, Ginger, is more commonly used for digestive health and nausea. Choice D, Echinacea, is often used to boost the immune system. Therefore, in the context of stress relief, Chamomile is the most appropriate ingredient.

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