a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the lpnlvn monitor closely while the clien
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1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

2. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.

3. During a physical assessment, a nurse is assessing 4 adult clients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the bladder of the BP cuff surrounds 80% of the arm. This technique is crucial for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Choice B is incorrect because using the BP cuff on the forearm may lead to inaccurate readings. Choice C is incorrect as applying the BP cuff loosely can also result in inaccurate measurements. Choice D is incorrect because using a pediatric cuff for adults with small arms would not provide accurate blood pressure readings.

4. When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, the nurse should turn the client’s head to the side. This action helps prevent aspiration by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing fingers into the client’s mouth can be dangerous and may cause injury. Brushing the client’s teeth only once a day may not be sufficient for proper oral hygiene care. Injecting mouth rinse into the center of the mouth is not recommended and can potentially lead to aspiration. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to turn the client’s head to the side.

5. A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.

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