Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

2. A client is receiving continuous IV fluid therapy via a peripheral vein in the left forearm. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed phlebitis at the IV site?

• A. Erythema along the path of the vein
• B. Pitting edema at the insertion site
• C. Coolness of the client’s left forearm
• D. Pallor of the client’s left forearm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema (redness) along the path of the vein is a classic sign of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. This occurs due to irritation or infection at the IV site. Pitting edema (choice B) is not typically associated with phlebitis but suggests fluid overload or poor circulation. Coolness (choice C) and pallor (choice D) of the forearm are not characteristic signs of phlebitis but may indicate impaired circulation or reduced blood flow to the area.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate.
• B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
• C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr.
• D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infusing 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr is the correct action to prevent hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution becomes available. This solution will help maintain the client's glucose levels. Infusing normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate (Choice A) is not appropriate for maintaining glucose levels and would not address the nutritional needs provided by TPN. Discontinuing the IV and flushing the port with heparin (Choice B) is unnecessary and not indicated in this situation as the client still needs fluid and nutrition. Obtaining a stat blood glucose level and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done later but is not the immediate action required when the TPN solution has run out.

4. A 16-year-old enters the emergency department. The triage nurse identifies that this teenager is legally married and signs the consent form for treatment. What would be the appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Ask the teenager to wait until a parent or legal guardian can be contacted
• B. Withhold treatment until telephone consent can be obtained from the partner
• C. Refer the teenager to a community pediatric hospital emergency department
• D. Proceed with the triage process in the same manner as any adult client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to proceed with the triage process in the same manner as any adult client. In this scenario, since the teenager is legally married, they have the legal authority to consent to their own treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the teenager, being legally married, can provide their own consent. Choice B is incorrect as it unnecessarily delays treatment by waiting for telephone consent from the partner, which is not required in this case. Choice C is incorrect as the teenager can receive appropriate care in the current emergency department setting without the need for referral.

5. A client who has been experiencing frequent tonic-clonic seizures is being admitted by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Wrap blankets around all four sides of the bed.
• B. Place the client in a padded room.
• C. Maintain the bed in the lowest position.
• D. Ensure the client has a soft mattress.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining the bed in the lowest position is crucial in reducing the risk of injury during tonic-clonic seizures. This action helps prevent falls and minimizes potential harm to the client. Wrapping blankets around all four sides of the bed (Choice A) may restrict movement during a seizure and increase the risk of injury. Placing the client in a padded room (Choice B) is not a practical approach in a healthcare setting and may not be feasible. Ensuring the client has a soft mattress (Choice D) alone does not address the safety concerns during seizures, unlike keeping the bed in the lowest position.

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