a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the lpnlvn monitor closely while the clien
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1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

2. A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.

4. A client is reporting pain to a nurse. When documenting the quality of the client's pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting the quality of pain, it is essential to record the client's description of how the pain feels in their own words. Choice A simply states the intensity of pain but does not describe its quality. Choices C and D provide information related to aggravating factors and associated symptoms, respectively, but they do not describe the quality of pain. Therefore, choice B, which describes the pain as a dull ache in the stomach, is the most appropriate statement to document for assessing the quality of the client's pain.

5. The healthcare provider is providing postoperative care to a client who had a submucosal resection (SMR) for a deviated septum. The healthcare provider should monitor for what complication associated with this type of surgery?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Expectoration of blood is a potential complication following SMR surgery, as it may indicate bleeding postoperatively. In contrast, occipital headache (choice A) is not a common complication associated with SMR surgery. Periorbital crepitus (choice B) is more related to facial fractures or certain infections rather than SMR surgery. Changes in vocalization (choice D) are not typically associated with complications following SMR surgery.

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