Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

2. The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?

• A. When I place my finger in the left hand, the baby does not respond with a grasp.
• B. My baby does not seem to track objects when I move toys in front of their face.
• C. When it thundered loudly last night, the baby did not even startle.
• D. When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.

3. The healthcare provider is providing teaching to an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity about diet. Which diet will the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. High protein, high calorie
• B. High carbohydrate, low fat
• C. High vitamin A, high vitamin E
• D. Fluid restricted, bland

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: High protein, high calorie. An immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity requires a diet high in protein and calories to repair injured tissue and rebuild depleted protein stores. This helps in promoting wound healing and preventing further breakdown of the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while vitamins and minerals are essential for overall health, in this case, the priority is on providing sufficient protein and calories to support healing and recovery in an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity.

4. Under the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act, what are nurse managers required to do?

• A. Maintain an environment free from associated hazards
• B. Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals
• C. Make all necessary accommodations for disabled individuals
• D. Consider both mental and physical disabilities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals.' The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) mandates nurse managers to offer reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals to ensure equal opportunities in the workplace. Choice A is incorrect because although maintaining a hazard-free environment is essential, the focus of the ADA is on accommodations for disabled individuals. Choice C is incorrect as it overly generalizes the accommodations without specifying the need for them to be 'reasonable.' Choice D is incorrect because the ADA does not specify a requirement to consider both mental and physical disabilities; instead, it emphasizes providing reasonable accommodations regardless of the disability type.

5. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Increase in hematocrit
• B. Increase in respiratory rate
• C. Decrease in heart rate
• D. Decrease in capillary refill time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.

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