a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the lpnlvn monitor closely while the clien
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1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

2. While reviewing the medical records of a client with a pressure ulcer, a nurse should expect which of the following findings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An albumin level below 3.5 g/dL indicates protein deficiency, which can impair wound healing and contribute to pressure ulcer formation. Hemoglobin level and WBC count are not directly associated with pressure ulcers. Blood glucose level, while important for overall health, is not specifically linked to pressure ulcer development.

3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.

4. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling anxious, shaky, and weak. These findings are manifestations of which of the following complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypoglycemia. In diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia can lead to symptoms such as anxiety, shakiness, and weakness due to low blood sugar levels. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is high blood sugar levels and typically presents with symptoms like increased thirst and frequent urination. Ketoacidosis (choice C) is a serious complication of diabetes characterized by high levels of ketones in the blood, leading to symptoms such as fruity breath and rapid breathing. The Dawn phenomenon (choice D) refers to an abnormal early-morning increase in blood sugar levels without an associated hypoglycemia during the night.

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