a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin coumadin which laboratory value should the lpnlvn monitor closely while the clien
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1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

2. A client tells the nurse, “I have to check with my partner and see if they think I am ready to go home.” The nurse responds, “How do you feel about going home today?” Which clarifying technique is the nurse using to enhance communication with the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reflecting is the correct answer as it involves echoing back the client’s feelings and concerns, helping them explore their thoughts. In this scenario, the nurse mirrors the client's statement to encourage the client to delve deeper into their emotions. Pacing involves matching the rate and flow of communication, paraphrasing is restating in different words, and restating is repeating what the client said without adding new information. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are not the appropriate clarifying technique demonstrated in the situation described.

3. A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, 'Help! I think he is having a heart attack!' The nurse responds to the scene and finds the unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an AED. The nurse's first action, after ensuring someone has called for EMS, should be to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a scenario where a person is unconscious and there is an indication of a possible heart attack, the immediate priority for the nurse should be to administer cardiac compressions. This action helps maintain circulation and ensures oxygenated blood reaches vital organs until the AED is available. Checking for a pulse or performing rescue breaths may delay essential circulation support, and attaching AED pads should follow the initial step of administering compressions to maximize the chances of a successful resuscitation.

4. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

5. While a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action is to change the TPN bag every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (Choice B) may increase the risk of contamination. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours (Choice A) is important but not specific to TPN administration. Weighing the client daily (Choice C) is essential for monitoring fluid status but is not directly related to TPN administration.

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