HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. The nurse places one hand above the symphysis while massaging the fundus of a multiparous client whose uterine tone is boggy 15 minutes after delivering a 7-pound, 10-ounce (3220-gram) infant. Which information should the nurse provide to the client about these findings?
- A. The uterus should be firm to prevent an intrauterine infection.
- B. Both the lower uterine segment and the fundus must be massaged.
- C. A firm uterus prevents the endometrial lining from being sloughed.
- D. Clots may form inside a boggy uterus and need to be expelled.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After childbirth, a boggy uterus indicates poor uterine tone, which can lead to the formation of clots. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and expel clots, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the main concern with a boggy uterus is the risk of clot formation and postpartum hemorrhage, not solely preventing intrauterine infection, massaging the lower uterine segment, or preventing the endometrial lining from sloughing.
2. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
- B. Recalculation of gestational age
- C. Evaluation of fetal growth
- D. Determination of fetal presentation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.
3. A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Metronidazole
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Acyclovir
- D. Clindamycin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.
4. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Urinary Frequency
- C. Breast Tenderness
- D. Chills
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breast Tenderness.' Clomiphene citrate is known to cause breast tenderness as a common side effect due to its hormonal effects on the body. Tinnitus (choice A), which is a ringing in the ears, is not typically associated with clomiphene citrate. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of this medication. Chills (choice D) are also not commonly linked to clomiphene citrate use.
5. A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels. The client shows the nurse her readings for the past few days. Which reading signals the nurse that the client may require an adjustment of insulin or carbohydrates?
- A. 75 mg/dl before lunch. This is low; better eat now.
- B. 115 mg/dl 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time.
- C. 115 mg/dl 2 hours after lunch. This is too high; it is time for insulin.
- D. 50 mg/dl just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: 50 mg/dl after waking from a nap is too low. During hours of sleep, glucose levels should not be less than 60 mg/dl. Snacks before sleeping can be helpful. The premeal acceptable range is 60 to 99 mg/dl. The readings 1 hour after a meal should be less than 129 mg/dl. Two hours after eating, the readings should be less than 120 mg/dl.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access