Nursing Elites

1. The nurse places one hand above the symphysis while massaging the fundus of a multiparous client whose uterine tone is boggy 15 minutes after delivering a 7-pound, 10-ounce (3220-gram) infant. Which information should the nurse provide to the client about these findings?

• A. The uterus should be firm to prevent an intrauterine infection.
• B. Both the lower uterine segment and the fundus must be massaged.
• C. A firm uterus prevents the endometrial lining from being sloughed.
• D. Clots may form inside a boggy uterus and need to be expelled.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After childbirth, a boggy uterus indicates poor uterine tone, which can lead to the formation of clots. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and expel clots, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the main concern with a boggy uterus is the risk of clot formation and postpartum hemorrhage, not solely preventing intrauterine infection, massaging the lower uterine segment, or preventing the endometrial lining from sloughing.

2. When both of the alleles for a trait, such as hair color, are the same, the person is said to be _____ for that trait.

• A. monozygous
• B. dizygous
• C. homozygous
• D. hemizygous

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A person is homozygous for a trait when they have two identical alleles for that trait. In this case, both alleles are the same, indicating a homozygous genotype. Choice A, 'monozygous,' is incorrect as it refers to identical twins originating from a single fertilized egg. Choice B, 'dizygous,' is also incorrect as it refers to fraternal twins or individuals that develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Choice D, 'hemizygous,' is incorrect because it describes a genetic condition where only one allele is present in a diploid organism, typically related to genes on the sex chromosomes.

3. During the client’s initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?

• A. History of diabetes for 6 years.
• B. Exercises three times a week.
• C. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers.
• D. Maternal age 30 years.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.

4. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?

• A. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
• B. Placenta previa
• C. Midline episiotomy
• D. Gestational hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.

5. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
• B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
• C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
• D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

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