HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. What maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of spina bifida occulta in a newborn?
- A. Short interval between pregnancies
- B. Folic acid deficiency
- C. Preeclampsia
- D. Tobacco use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is a well-known risk factor for neural tube defects, including spina bifida occulta, making supplementation critical in prenatal care. Folic acid plays a crucial role in neural tube formation during early pregnancy. Short intervals between pregnancies do not directly impact the development of spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy and is not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. While tobacco use during pregnancy has various adverse effects, it is not the primary factor influencing the development of spina bifida occulta in newborns.
2. Which neonatal complications are associated with hypertension in the mother?
- A. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and prematurity.
- B. Seizures and cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Hepatic or renal dysfunction.
- D. Placental abruption and DIC.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Neonatal complications associated with maternal hypertension are primarily due to placental insufficiency. The correct answer is A, which includes Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR) and prematurity. These complications arise from inadequate blood flow to the fetus, leading to growth restriction and premature birth. Choices B, seizures, and cerebral hemorrhage are more commonly maternal complications rather than neonatal ones. Choice C, hepatic or renal dysfunction, pertains to maternal complications of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, not neonatal issues. Choice D, placental abruption, and Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) are conditions linked to maternal morbidity and mortality, not neonatal complications.
3. What is the primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth?
- A. Stimulates crying and lung expansion.
- B. Removes maternal blood from the skin surface.
- C. Reduces heat loss from evaporation.
- D. Increases blood supply to the hands and feet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth is to reduce heat loss from evaporation. This helps maintain the infant's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Choice A (Stimulates crying and lung expansion) is incorrect because drying the infant is not primarily done to stimulate crying but rather to prevent heat loss. Choice B (Removes maternal blood from the skin surface) is incorrect as the main reason is to prevent heat loss, not to remove maternal blood. Choice D (Increases blood supply to the hands and feet) is also incorrect as drying the infant is not intended to increase blood supply but rather to regulate body temperature.
4. A client is 4 hours postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer indomethacin
- B. Insert a second 22-gauge IV catheter.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hypovolemic shock, there is decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula can help improve oxygenation and support tissue perfusion. Indomethacin (Choice A) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and is not indicated in the management of hypovolemic shock. Inserting a second 22-gauge IV catheter (Choice B) may be necessary for fluid resuscitation, but oxygen administration takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice C) may be considered for monitoring urinary output, but it is not the priority action in managing hypovolemic shock.
5. During the client’s initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?
- A. History of diabetes for 6 years.
- B. Exercises three times a week.
- C. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers.
- D. Maternal age 30 years.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access