Nursing Elites

1. What maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of spina bifida occulta in a newborn?

• A. Short interval between pregnancies
• B. Folic acid deficiency
• C. Preeclampsia
• D. Tobacco use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is a well-known risk factor for neural tube defects, including spina bifida occulta, making supplementation critical in prenatal care. Folic acid plays a crucial role in neural tube formation during early pregnancy. Short intervals between pregnancies do not directly impact the development of spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy and is not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. While tobacco use during pregnancy has various adverse effects, it is not the primary factor influencing the development of spina bifida occulta in newborns.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione (vitamin K) to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?

• A. Improve insufficient dietary intake
• B. Stimulate the immune system
• C. Help an immature liver
• D. Prevent hemorrhagic disorders

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease due to their low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. Choice A is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not related to improving dietary intake. Choice B is incorrect as vitamin K doesn't stimulate the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K is not given to help an immature liver, but rather to prevent hemorrhagic disorders.

3. Rico is a man who has enlarged breasts and suffers from mild mental retardation. He has a problem learning languages, and his body produces less of the male sex hormone testosterone than normal males. Rico is most likely suffering from:

• A. Klinefelter syndrome.
• B. Tay-Sachs disease.
• C. Turner syndrome.
• D. Down syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rico's symptoms align with Klinefelter syndrome, which is characterized by an extra X chromosome in males (XXY). Enlarged breasts (gynecomastia), mild mental retardation, learning difficulties, and reduced testosterone production are common features of Klinefelter syndrome. Choice B, Tay-Sachs disease, is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system and is not associated with the symptoms described. Choice C, Turner syndrome, occurs in females with a missing or partially missing X chromosome and does not fit Rico's profile. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 and typically does not present with the symptoms mentioned for Rico.

4. Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?

• A. Multipara with contractions occurring every three minutes
• B. Multipara scheduled for non-stress test and biophysical profile
• C. Primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes
• D. Primipara with burning on urination and urinary frequency

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.

5. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?

• A. Dilation of the cervix.
• B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
• C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
• D. Increase in bloody show.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.

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