Nursing Elites

1. According to a study in 2014 by Skakkebaek et al., who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia?

• A. Jennifer, a dancer, who has Down syndrome
• B. Frank, a teacher, who is diagnosed with XYY syndrome
• C. Peter, a fashion designer, who has Klinefelter syndrome
• D. Ria, a gym instructor, who is diagnosed with Turner syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY) and typically have reduced testosterone levels, which can lead to gynecomastia (enlarged breasts). This condition is not usually associated with Down syndrome (choice A), XYY syndrome (choice B), or Turner syndrome (choice D), making them less likely to have gynecomastia.

2. Do sebaceous glands cause a developing organism to grow arms or wings, skin, or scales?

• A. True
• B. False
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: False. Sebaceous glands are associated with the skin's oil production and have no role in the development of limbs or body coverings. Sebaceous glands primarily produce sebum, an oily substance that lubricates and waterproofs the skin and hair. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sebaceous glands do not influence the growth of arms, wings, skin, or scales in a developing organism.

3. A client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself at home during the last 2 months of pregnancy is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I will count baby’s kicks every other day.”
• B. “I will alternate the arm used to check my blood pressure.”
• C. “I will consume 50 grams of protein daily.”
• D. ---

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alternating arms for blood pressure checks ensures more accurate readings and helps monitor preeclampsia. Option A, counting baby's kicks every other day, is not specific to managing preeclampsia. Option C, consuming 50 grams of protein daily, is important for a healthy diet during pregnancy but does not directly relate to preeclampsia management.

4. After a mother was diagnosed with gonorrhea immediately after delivery, what is an important goal of the nurse when providing care for her baby?

• A. Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum.
• B. Lubricate the eyes.
• C. Prevent the development of infection.
• D. Teach about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum. When a mother has gonorrhea, the baby can be infected during delivery, leading to ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause permanent blindness. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prevent this condition by treating the baby's eyes with an antibiotic prophylactically after birth. Choice B, lubricating the eyes, is not the primary goal in this situation as preventing infection takes precedence. Choice C, preventing the development of infection, is too broad and does not specifically address the potential complication of ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice D, teaching about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea, is important but not the immediate goal in this scenario where preventing ophthalmia neonatorum and potential blindness is the priority.

5. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

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