Nursing Elites

1. According to a study in 2014 by Skakkebaek et al., who among the following is most likely to have gynecomastia?

• A. Jennifer, a dancer, who has Down syndrome
• B. Frank, a teacher, who is diagnosed with XYY syndrome
• C. Peter, a fashion designer, who has Klinefelter syndrome
• D. Ria, a gym instructor, who is diagnosed with Turner syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY) and typically have reduced testosterone levels, which can lead to gynecomastia (enlarged breasts). This condition is not usually associated with Down syndrome (choice A), XYY syndrome (choice B), or Turner syndrome (choice D), making them less likely to have gynecomastia.

2. When does the fetus typically begin to turn and respond to external stimulation during pregnancy?

• A. During the second or third week
• B. After the first trimester
• C. Sometimes
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The fetus typically begins to respond to external stimulation much later in pregnancy, usually after the first trimester. During the second or third week of pregnancy, the fetus is still in the early stages of development and is not yet capable of turning or responding to external stimuli. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the timeline of fetal development when it comes to responding to external stimulation.

3. Which drug was marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women and caused birth defects such as missing or stunted limbs in infants?

• A. Progestin
• B. Estrogen
• C. Thalidomide
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thalidomide is the correct answer. Thalidomide was a drug marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women as a sedative and anti-nausea medication but tragically led to severe birth defects, including limb deformities, when taken during pregnancy. Progestin (Choice A) and Estrogen (Choice B) are hormones that are not associated with causing birth defects like Thalidomide. Oxytocin (Choice D) is a hormone that plays a role in labor and breastfeeding and is not known to cause birth defects like Thalidomide.

4. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
• B. Recalculation of gestational age
• C. Evaluation of fetal growth
• D. Determination of fetal presentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

5. What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for males?

• A. XX
• B. XYY
• C. XY
• D. XXY

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: XY. In males, the typical sex chromosome pattern consists of one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. Choice A (XX) is the sex chromosome pattern for females. Choice B (XYY) is a chromosomal disorder where males have an extra Y chromosome. Choice D (XXY) is the sex chromosome pattern associated with Klinefelter syndrome, a condition where males have an extra X chromosome.

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