HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
2. The UAP reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Explain the importance of good hygiene to the client
- B. Ask family members to encourage the client to bathe
- C. Reschedule the bath for the following day
- D. Ask the client why the bath was refused
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reason for refusal is crucial in identifying and addressing any underlying concerns or issues that may be contributing to the refusal. This approach promotes open communication, client-centered care, and helps in developing a plan of care that is tailored to the client's needs and preferences. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the situation.
3. What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?
- A. Prevents food from entering the trachea
- B. Aids in food propulsion
- C. Enhances taste sensation
- D. Lubricates the esophagus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. Choice A is correct because the primary function of the epiglottis is to act as a lid over the trachea, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and not into the windpipe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the specific role of the epiglottis during swallowing.
4. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?
- A. Serotonin
- B. Dopamine
- C. GABA
- D. Acetylcholine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.
5. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access