The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb

B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful

C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl

D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.

What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administering a bronchodilator
• B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
• C. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.

A female client taking a liquid iron preparation expresses concern that her tooth color has darkened since starting the medication. What action should the PN implement?

• A. Teach the client to use a straw when taking the medication to reduce further tooth staining
• B. Advise the client to withhold further doses until consulting with the healthcare provider
• C. Reassure the client that this change indicates the medication is having the desired effect
• D. Determine if the client is also experiencing mouth or gum pain and difficulty swallowing

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to implement is to teach the client to use a straw when taking the medication to reduce further tooth staining. Using a straw minimizes contact between the iron preparation and the teeth, helping prevent additional staining. Choice B is incorrect because withholding doses without consulting the healthcare provider could be detrimental to the client's health. Choice C is incorrect because darkening of tooth color is not an expected effect of liquid iron preparation and should not be reassured as a desired effect. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's concern about tooth staining.

After spinal fusion surgery, a client reports numbness and tingling in the legs. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities.
• B. Reposition the client to relieve pressure on the spine.
• C. Administer prescribed pain medication.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After spinal fusion surgery, numbness and tingling in the legs may indicate nerve compression or damage. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities. This assessment will help determine the cause and severity of the symptoms, guiding further interventions. Repositioning the client may be necessary for comfort, but assessing neurovascular status is the initial step. Administering pain medication should only follow the assessment to address any discomfort. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action unless there are emergent signs requiring urgent intervention.