HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. Which condition is characterized by a progressive loss of muscle strength due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors?
- A. Myasthenia gravis
- B. Multiple sclerosis
- C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
- D. Guillain-Barré syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This results in impaired communication between nerves and muscles. Choice B, Multiple sclerosis, is a condition where the immune system attacks the protective myelin sheath covering the nerves in the central nervous system, leading to communication issues between the brain and the rest of the body. Choice C, Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, not involving acetylcholine receptors. Choice D, Guillain-Barré syndrome, is an acute condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nerves, causing muscle weakness and paralysis, but it does not target acetylcholine receptors.
2. Which of the following best describes the role of insulin in the body?
- A. Insulin helps break down glucose into energy for the body
- B. Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells
- C. Insulin converts excess glucose into fat for storage
- D. Insulin increases the breakdown of protein into amino acids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells, where it can be used for energy production. Choice A is incorrect because insulin doesn't break down glucose but rather helps cells take up glucose. Choice C is incorrect as insulin does not directly convert glucose into fat; excess glucose is stored as fat by other processes. Choice D is incorrect as insulin does not increase the breakdown of protein into amino acids; its primary role is in glucose metabolism.
3. There has been a serious explosion at a local factory, and many of the injured are arriving at the hospital. Which of the following patients should a nurse attend to first?
- A. A 30-year-old male who is able to walk into the hospital on his own but has numerous lacerations on the chest and face
- B. A 45-year-old male who was brought in on a stretcher, has been assessed as having respiration and circulation within normal limits, and can follow simple commands
- C. A 50-year-old woman who can walk but has a broken arm and numerous lacerations
- D. A 19-year-old man who has numerous lacerations all over the body and whose respiration exceeds 30 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The 19-year-old man with a respiration rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute is showing signs of respiratory distress, indicating a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Patients with respiratory distress should be prioritized as it is a critical condition. Choices A, B, and C describe patients with injuries that are less immediately life-threatening or who are more stable based on the provided information, so they can be attended to after the patient with respiratory distress. Therefore, the nurse should attend to the 19-year-old man first to address his respiratory distress and ensure his condition does not deteriorate further.
4. When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?
- A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
- B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
- C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
- D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.
5. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?
- A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
- B. To improve circulation in the legs.
- C. To prevent pressure ulcers.
- D. To alleviate post-operative pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.
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