HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. Which condition is characterized by a progressive loss of muscle strength due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors?
- A. Myasthenia gravis
- B. Multiple sclerosis
- C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
- D. Guillain-Barré syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This results in impaired communication between nerves and muscles. Choice B, Multiple sclerosis, is a condition where the immune system attacks the protective myelin sheath covering the nerves in the central nervous system, leading to communication issues between the brain and the rest of the body. Choice C, Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, not involving acetylcholine receptors. Choice D, Guillain-Barré syndrome, is an acute condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nerves, causing muscle weakness and paralysis, but it does not target acetylcholine receptors.
2. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?
- A. Prescription for lorazepam
- B. History of Parkinson's disease
- C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
- D. Recent urine drug screen report
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.
3. When caring for a child with sickle cell disease, the PN expects that the child will most likely describe which symptom when experiencing a sickle cell crisis?
- A. Decreased hemoglobin
- B. Joint pain
- C. Fatigue
- D. Infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a sickle cell crisis, a child with sickle cell disease is most likely to describe joint pain. Sickle cell disease leads to the blockage of blood flow by sickled red blood cells, causing ischemia and pain, often felt in the joints and other body parts. Fatigue (choice C) is a nonspecific symptom that can occur in various conditions but is not a characteristic symptom of a sickle cell crisis. While decreased hemoglobin (choice A) can be observed in sickle cell disease, it is not a symptom typically described by a child during a sickle cell crisis. Infection (choice D) can trigger a sickle cell crisis but is not the symptom most likely to be described by the child during the crisis.
4. A client post-thoracotomy is complaining of severe pain with deep breathing and coughing. What should the nurse encourage the client to do to manage the pain and prevent respiratory complications?
- A. Hold a pillow against the chest while coughing (splinting).
- B. Take shallow breaths to avoid pain.
- C. Increase the dose of pain medication.
- D. Avoid deep breathing exercises.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Splinting the chest with a pillow helps manage pain during deep breathing and coughing, which is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia after thoracic surgery. Holding a pillow against the chest while coughing (splinting) supports the incision site and reduces the pain associated with deep breathing and coughing. Encouraging shallow breaths (Choice B) can lead to respiratory complications due to inadequate lung expansion. Increasing pain medication (Choice C) should be done based on healthcare provider orders and not solely for this situation. Avoiding deep breathing exercises (Choice D) can worsen respiratory function and increase the risk of complications.
5. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering a bronchodilator
- B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
- C. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access