Nursing Elites

1. A client with a recent total knee replacement is scheduled for physical therapy. The client refuses to participate, stating that the pain is too intense. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer the prescribed analgesic and encourage participation after it takes effect.
• B. Reschedule the physical therapy session for later in the day.
• C. Explain the importance of physical therapy for recovery.
• D. Notify the physical therapist of the client's refusal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before physical therapy helps manage the pain, making it easier for the client to participate in the necessary exercises to improve recovery and prevent complications such as joint stiffness. Choice B is not the first step as addressing the pain should take precedence. Choice C is important but should come after managing the pain to facilitate participation. Choice D involves another healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed in this situation.

2. An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer. Upon arrival at the outpatient clinic for a scheduled treatment, the client reports increasing fatigue to the nurse who is taking the client's vital signs. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately
• B. Offer to reschedule the treatment for the following week
• C. Plan to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes
• D. Reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy. In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to reinforce the importance of rest and adequate sleep. It is crucial to address the client's increasing fatigue by promoting self-care strategies such as additional rest periods and ensuring plenty of sleep. Rescheduling the treatment is not necessary for fatigue, and vital sign monitoring every 30 minutes may not directly address the client's reported symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately is not the first-line intervention for increasing fatigue, as this symptom can be managed through education and self-care recommendations.

3. The PN is caring for a laboring client whose last sterile vaginal examination revealed the cervix was 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part was at 0 station. An hour later, the client tells the PN that she wants to go to the bathroom. Which action is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Review the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern
• B. Check the perineum for an increase in bloody show
• C. Request a nurse to check the client's cervical dilation
• D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The sudden urge to use the bathroom may indicate that labor is progressing quickly. Checking the cervical dilation will help determine if the client is in the transition phase of labor and if it is appropriate to allow her to get up. Reviewing the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern (Choice A) is important but not the most immediate action in this scenario. Checking the perineum for an increase in bloody show (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as assessing cervical dilation. Palpating the client's bladder for distention (Choice D) is not the priority when the client wants to go to the bathroom during labor.

4. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

5. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

• A. Is experiencing an exacerbation of goiter
• B. Is experiencing an acute asthmatic attack
• C. Has aspirated a piece of meat
• D. Has severe laryngotracheitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

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