Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the increased risk of hyperglycemia associated with TPN infusion. Elevated blood glucose levels can lead to complications such as hyperglycemia, which can be harmful to the client. While monitoring serum potassium (Choice A), serum sodium (Choice C), and serum calcium (Choice D) are also important aspects of care, when specifically considering TPN administration, blood glucose monitoring takes precedence due to the potential for significant complications related to glucose imbalances.

2. A 3-year-old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the post-anesthesia care unit crying but awake. Which approach is likely to be successful?

• A. Examine the mouth first
• B. Reassure the child
• C. Examine the mouth last
• D. Offer a pacifier

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial to prioritize the comfort of the child. By examining the mouth last, discomfort is minimized, and the child is given the opportunity to settle down. Choosing to examine the mouth first may escalate the distress of the child further. While reassuring the child is important, in this case, addressing the physical discomfort before providing emotional reassurance is more effective. Offering a pacifier may provide some comfort, but addressing the immediate physical discomfort by examining the mouth last is the most appropriate action to help the child settle down after the procedure.

3. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increased serum glucose
• B. Decreased albumin
• C. Decreased potassium
• D. Increased sodium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

4. A client asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. They allow the court to overrule an adult client's refusal of medical treatment.
• B. They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness.
• C. They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.
• D. They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client's condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Advance directives specify the type of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or avoid in the event of a serious illness. Choice A is incorrect because advance directives do not allow the court to overrule a client's refusal of medical treatment; they empower the client to make their own healthcare decisions. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives do not permit a client to withhold medical information; they provide guidance on the client's treatment preferences. Choice D is incorrect because advance directives do not specifically address the actions of health care personnel in the emergency department; they focus on the client's treatment preferences in general.

5. When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?

• A. Immediately after admission, during one-to-one observation
• B. 7 to 14 days after initiation of antidepressant medication and psychotherapy
• C. Following an angry outburst with family
• D. When the client is removed from the security room

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.

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