HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider about reducing the adverse effects of immobility. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will perform ankle and knee exercises every hour - Range of motion (ROM) is needed to prevent contractures.
- B. I will hold my breath when rising from a sitting position.
- C. I will remove my antiembolic stockings while I am in bed.
- D. I will have my partner help me change positions every 4 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because performing ankle and knee exercises every hour helps prevent contractures and other adverse effects of immobility. Contractures are a common complication of immobility, and range of motion (ROM) exercises can help maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Holding the breath when rising from a sitting position can increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, not reduce adverse effects of immobility. Removing antiembolic stockings while in bed can compromise their effectiveness in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is not a measure to reduce immobility-related complications. Having a partner help change positions every 4 hours may not be frequent enough to prevent immobility-related complications effectively; changing positions more frequently is usually recommended to prevent issues like pressure ulcers and muscle stiffness.
2. A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?
- A. The ciliary muscle contracts, increasing the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
- B. Ciliary muscles are paralyzed to decrease accommodation.
- C. Bilateral mydriasis with cycloplegia is accomplished.
- D. The production of aqueous humor in the eyes is decreased.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye. Choice A is correct because the contraction of the ciliary muscle increases the outflow of aqueous humor, aiding in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the mechanism of action of pilocarpine in treating glaucoma.
3. A 2-year-old child is brought to the health care provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for 2 days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement?
- A. Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours
- B. Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids
- C. Give bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated
- D. Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In managing mild diarrhea in a 2-year-old child, it is important to maintain their regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Choice A of placing the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours may not provide adequate nutrition and can lead to further electrolyte imbalances. Choice C of giving bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated is a part of the BRAT diet, which is not recommended as the primary approach anymore due to its limited nutritional value. Choice D of placing the child NPO for 24 hours and then rehydrating with milk and water is not appropriate as it can worsen dehydration and delay recovery. Therefore, the best option is to continue the child's regular diet while incorporating oral rehydration fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain nutritional status.
4. When teaching a class of new parents about positioning their infants during the first few weeks of life, which position is safest?
- A. On the back, lying flat
- B. On either side, lying flat
- C. Head slightly elevated on the left side
- D. Head slightly elevated on the right side
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'On the back, lying flat'. Placing infants on their back to sleep is recommended to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps ensure the baby's airway remains clear and reduces the likelihood of suffocation. Choices B, C, and D are not as safe as placing the infant on their back, as they may increase the risk of accidental suffocation or SIDS.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Sodium level
- B. Potassium level
- C. Calcium level
- D. Chloride level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.