the female nurse is caring for a male patient who is uncircumcised but not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities the nurse is providing
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Study Guide

1. The female is caring for a male patient who is uncircumcised but not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities. The nurse is providing the patient with a partial bed bath. How should perineal care be performed for this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Perineal care should be encouraged to be done by the patient if they are capable of performing self-care. In this scenario, the patient is not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities, indicating that the patient can independently perform perineal care. Encouraging self-care promotes independence and maintains the patient's dignity. Postponing perineal care (Choice A) is incorrect because it is essential for hygiene. Choice B is incorrect as perineal care is necessary for all patients regardless of circumcision status. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is capable of performing the care independently, and promoting self-care is a priority in nursing practice.

2. During a home safety assessment for a client receiving supplemental oxygen, which observation should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using non-acetone nail polish remover is crucial for clients on supplemental oxygen as acetone is flammable and poses a safety risk. Acetone can react with oxygen, increasing the fire hazard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Electric razors can generate sparks, which are dangerous near oxygen due to the risk of ignition. While cleaning oxygen equipment is important, the type of nail polish remover used is more critical for immediate safety. Wool blankets can create static electricity, increasing the risk of fire around oxygen due to its flammability.

3. A client is 6 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery and is having difficulty voiding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to allow the client to hear running water while attempting to void. This can help stimulate the urge to urinate in a non-invasive way, promoting natural voiding. Providing a bedpan while sitting upright is also a suitable approach to facilitate voiding by encouraging a more natural position. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be a last resort due to infection risks and discomfort associated with catheterization. Encouraging the client to limit fluid intake is not appropriate as hydration is crucial for overall health and can aid in promoting voiding. Therefore, the best initial intervention to promote voiding in this scenario is to allow the client to hear running water.

4. When taking a history of a 3-year-old with neuroblastoma, what comment by the parents requires follow-up and is consistent with the diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clothes becoming tighter across the abdomen is indicative of an abdominal mass, a common presentation in neuroblastoma. This symptom should be followed up on further as it aligns with the diagnosis. Choices A, B, and D are less specific to neuroblastoma. Weight loss and listlessness (Choice A) can be nonspecific symptoms, while dark yellow urine in small amounts (Choice B) may suggest dehydration or other conditions. Muscle weakness and unsteadiness (Choice D) could point towards various neurological or muscular issues but are not as directly related to neuroblastoma as the symptom described in Choice C.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL ÷ 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.

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