Nursing Elites

1. The female is caring for a male patient who is uncircumcised but not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities. The nurse is providing the patient with a partial bed bath. How should perineal care be performed for this patient?

• A. Should be postponed because it may cause embarrassment.
• B. Should be unnecessary because the patient is uncircumcised.
• C. Should be done by the patient.
• D. Should be done by the nurse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Perineal care should be encouraged to be done by the patient if they are capable of performing self-care. In this scenario, the patient is not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities, indicating that the patient can independently perform perineal care. Encouraging self-care promotes independence and maintains the patient's dignity. Postponing perineal care (Choice A) is incorrect because it is essential for hygiene. Choice B is incorrect as perineal care is necessary for all patients regardless of circumcision status. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is capable of performing the care independently, and promoting self-care is a priority in nursing practice.

2. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

• A. During the admission process
• B. After the client is stabilized
• C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
• D. Just before the expected discharge date

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.

4. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Whole milk
• C. Cream soups
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.

5. Which nursing action prevents injury to a client's eye during the administration of eye drops?

• A. Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
• B. Rinsing the eye with saline before administration
• C. Placing the client in a supine position
• D. Pressing gently on the lower eyelid to open the eye

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing action to prevent injury to a client's eye during the administration of eye drops is to hold the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac. This technique helps to prevent direct contact between the container and the eye, reducing the risk of injury. Rinsing the eye with saline before administration (Choice B) is not a standard practice and may not necessarily prevent injury. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice C) is not directly related to preventing eye injury during eye drop administration. Pressing gently on the lower eyelid to open the eye (Choice D) is not recommended as it can potentially cause injury or discomfort to the client.

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