Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Which client complaint calls for immediate nursing action?

• A. Diaphoresis and shakiness
• B. Reduced sensation in the lower leg
• C. Intense thirst and hunger
• D. Painful hematoma on thigh

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diaphoresis and shakiness are classic signs of hypoglycemia in a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The nurse should address this complaint promptly by providing a fast-acting source of glucose to raise the client's blood sugar levels. Reduced sensation in the lower leg may indicate peripheral neuropathy, which is a common complication of diabetes but does not require immediate action unless there are signs of injury. Intense thirst and hunger are symptoms of hyperglycemia, which also requires intervention but not as urgently as hypoglycemia. A painful hematoma on the thigh may require assessment and management, but it is not as urgent as addressing hypoglycemia.

2. The nurse is assessing a newborn the day after birth. A high-pitched cry, irritability, and lack of interest in feeding are noted. The mother signed her own discharge against medical advice. What intervention is appropriate nursing care?

• A. Reduce the environmental stimuli
• B. Offer formula every 2 hours
• C. Talk to the newborn while feeding
• D. Rock the baby frequently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to reduce the environmental stimuli. In this scenario, the newborn is displaying signs of overstimulation and distress, which can be exacerbated by environmental factors. Offering formula every 2 hours (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of overstimulation. Talking to the newborn while feeding (Choice C) and rocking the baby frequently (Choice D) may further stimulate the newborn, which is not appropriate in this case.

3. What is the main objective of the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)?

• A. Provide healthcare to all individuals
• B. Reduce child mortality
• C. Eliminate vaccine-preventable diseases
• D. Promote healthy lifestyles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main objective of the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) is to eliminate vaccine-preventable diseases. While providing healthcare to all individuals and reducing child mortality are important goals, the primary focus of EPI is specifically on preventing diseases through immunization. Promoting healthy lifestyles, although beneficial, is not the primary aim of the EPI.

4. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

• A. 13 to 18 years of age.
• B. 11 to 12 years of age.
• C. 18 to 24 months of age.
• D. 4 to 6 years of age.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

5. An activity designed to diagnose and treat a disease or condition in its earliest stages, before it becomes full-blown, would be classified as:

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health education

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, secondary prevention. Secondary prevention focuses on early diagnosis and intervention to prevent the progression of a disease or condition. This involves detecting and treating the illness in its early stages to reduce its impact. Choice A, primary prevention, aims to prevent the development of a disease or injury before it occurs by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and improving the quality of life of individuals with established conditions to prevent complications and further deterioration. Choice D, health education, refers to providing information and promoting awareness about health issues to enable individuals to make informed decisions and adopt healthy behaviors.

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