HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Questions
1. The public health RN is called to investigate a report of several cases of varicella at a daycare center. The daycare workers state that 5 children have been sent home over the past 2 weeks with fever and itchy blisters. Which intervention should the RN implement first?
- A. Validate that the children who were sent home had chickenpox.
- B. Ask the parents to take the child to see their pediatrician.
- C. Ask the parents to not send the child back to daycare until after 6 weeks.
- D. Tell the parents to send the child back to daycare; it was a mistake they were sent home.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to validate that the children who were sent home had chickenpox. This is crucial in confirming the presence of varicella, which is necessary for appropriate management and control of the outbreak. Option B is not the first intervention because the focus initially is on verifying the cases within the daycare center. Option C is incorrect as it suggests a prolonged exclusion period without confirming the diagnosis. Option D is inappropriate and potentially harmful, as sending a child back without proper assessment can lead to further spread of the infection.
2. A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?
- A. Abruptio Placenta
- B. Placenta Previa
- C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
- D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.
3. A client is prescribed metformin for the management of type 2 diabetes. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas.
- B. Increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues.
- C. Decreases hepatic glucose production.
- D. Delays absorption of glucose from the intestines.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin primarily works by reducing the production of glucose in the liver (hepatic glucose production) and by improving insulin sensitivity in various tissues. Choice A is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas. Choice B is incorrect as metformin increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues, not just muscle cells. Choice D is incorrect as metformin does not delay glucose absorption from the intestines.
4. What is the primary source of energy for the brain and nervous system?
- A. Protein
- B. Fat
- C. Carbohydrate
- D. Glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Glucose is the correct answer as it is the primary source of energy for the brain and nervous system. The brain relies heavily on glucose to function optimally. While protein and fat play essential roles in the body, they are not the primary sources of energy for the brain and nervous system. Carbohydrates, on the other hand, are broken down into glucose, which is then used as fuel by the brain and nervous system.
5. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
- B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
- C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
- D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.