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Nursing Elites

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Community Health HESI Practice Questions

1. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.

2. The new graduate nurse interviews for a position in a nursing department of a large health care agency, described by the interviewer as having shared governance. Which of these statements best illustrates the shared governance model?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because shared governance involves nurses and other staff sharing responsibility for decisions related to patient care and outcomes, promoting collaborative practice and shared accountability. Choice A is incorrect as shared governance includes active participation of frontline staff, not just an appointed board. Choice C is incorrect because shared governance goes beyond just discussing issues to actively sharing responsibility for decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as shared governance encourages nurses to have a significant role in decision-making rather than being supervised by non-nurse managers.

3. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). The client is complaining of chest pain. The nurse knows that pain related to an MI is due to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insufficient oxygenation of the cardiac muscle. Myocardial infarction pain is primarily caused by inadequate oxygen reaching the heart muscle, leading to ischemia and tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because circulatory overload, left ventricular overload, and electrolyte imbalance are not the primary causes of chest pain in myocardial infarction. Circulatory overload may lead to other symptoms like edema, left ventricular overload can result in heart failure symptoms, and electrolyte imbalance may present with various manifestations, but none of these directly cause the characteristic chest pain associated with an MI.

5. From January 1 to 15, 1996, there were 8 cases of Tetanus neonatorum in San Lazaro Hospital. There were two deaths. What is the case fatality ratio of this disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The case fatality ratio is calculated as (deaths/cases) * 100. In this case, there were 2 deaths out of 8 cases. Therefore, the calculation is (2/8) * 100 = 25%. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation.

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