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Community Health HESI Practice Questions

1. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.

2. The milk code aims to ensure that:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the milk code emphasizes that companies should always acknowledge the superiority of breastmilk over formula. Choice A is incorrect because the focus is not on the public receiving information, but rather on companies recognizing breastmilk's superiority. Choice B is incorrect as it addresses health workers' actions, not the companies' behavior. Choice D is incorrect as the milk code is primarily concerned with regulating companies' practices, not health workers' acceptance of incentives.

3. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

4. A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.

5. When designing a home health care program for disabled children, which factor should be considered when assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies, approval by the network healthcare provider is crucial. This approval ensures that the services provided are within the approved network, allowing for reimbursement. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the reimbursement process by private insurance companies. While greater access to any healthcare provider, allowance for early discharge, and concern for the quality of care are important considerations when designing a home health care program, they do not specifically impact the reimbursement process from private insurance companies.

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