Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is reluctant to ambulate. What strategy should the nurse use to encourage the client?

• A. Explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery
• B. Wait for the client to request to walk
• C. Tell the client that walking is necessary for discharge
• D. Offer pain medication before walking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct strategy for the nurse to encourage the postoperative client to ambulate is to explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery. Educating the client on how ambulation aids in preventing complications and promotes faster recovery can motivate their participation. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request to walk may lead to delays in mobilization. Choice C is incorrect as it may induce unnecessary fear in the client. Choice D is incorrect as offering pain medication before walking does not address the client's reluctance to ambulate.

2. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being evaluated for dialysis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dL
• B. Potassium 6.2 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
• D. BUN 50 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium 6.2 mEq/L. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys struggle to regulate potassium levels, leading to hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is dangerously high and can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL may indicate anemia, which is common in chronic kidney disease but is not immediately life-threatening. Creatinine and BUN levels are markers of kidney function; although elevated levels indicate kidney impairment, they are not acutely life-threatening like severe hyperkalemia.

4. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

5. What is the most important action to prevent complications while caring for a client receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube?

• A. Check tube placement before each feeding
• B. Flush the tube with water before and after each feeding
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
• D. Administer the feeding at room temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking tube placement before each feeding is crucial to prevent aspiration, a serious complication of enteral nutrition. Ensuring the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach helps avoid the risk of the feeding going into the lungs, which can lead to aspiration pneumonia. Flushing the tube with water (Choice B) is important for maintaining tube patency but is not the most critical action to prevent complications. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) helps reduce the risk of aspiration but is not as crucial as verifying tube placement. Administering the feeding at room temperature (Choice D) is more related to patient comfort and does not directly address the prevention of complications associated with enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube.

Similar Questions