how should the nurse assess for cyanosis in a client with dark skin who is in respiratory distress
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. How should the nurse assess for cyanosis in a client with dark skin who is in respiratory distress?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the lips and mucous membranes provides a reliable indicator of cyanosis in clients with dark skin tones. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis can be assessed in clients with dark skin by observing other body areas. Choice B is incorrect as blanching the soles of the feet is not a relevant method for assessing cyanosis. Choice D is incorrect as cyanosis is not typically seen in the sclera in clients with dark skin.

2. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery. What is the most important preoperative instruction the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important preoperative instruction for a client with diabetes mellitus scheduled for surgery is to instruct them not to eat or drink after midnight. This instruction is crucial to maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status before surgery, reducing the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. While taking insulin as usual (Choice A) is important, doses can be adjusted by the healthcare team. Monitoring blood glucose closely (Choice C) is essential but not as critical preoperatively. Bringing a glucose meter to the hospital (Choice D) can be helpful but is not as vital as maintaining NPO status.

4. The client is being taught about a low-sodium diet. Which food should the client avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Canned vegetables. Canned vegetables are often high in sodium due to the preservation process, so they should be avoided on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits (choice A), fresh chicken (choice C), and unsalted nuts (choice D) are all low-sodium options and can be included in a low-sodium diet. It is important to choose fresh or frozen vegetables over canned ones to reduce sodium intake. Fresh chicken and unsalted nuts are also good protein sources that are naturally low in sodium, making them suitable for a low-sodium diet. Therefore, clients following a low-sodium diet should prioritize fresh, whole foods over processed or canned options.

5. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

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