Nursing Elites

1. How should the nurse assess for cyanosis in a client with dark skin who is in respiratory distress?

• A. Abnormal skin color changes in a client with dark skin cannot be determined
• B. Blanching the soles of the feet in a client with dark skin reveals cyanosis
• C. The lips and mucus membranes of a client with dark skin are dusky in color
• D. Cyanosis in a client with dark skin is seen in the sclera

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the lips and mucous membranes provides a reliable indicator of cyanosis in clients with dark skin tones. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis can be assessed in clients with dark skin by observing other body areas. Choice B is incorrect as blanching the soles of the feet is not a relevant method for assessing cyanosis. Choice D is incorrect as cyanosis is not typically seen in the sclera in clients with dark skin.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving home oxygen therapy. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Use oxygen at the highest flow rate tolerated.
• B. Do not smoke while using oxygen.
• C. Avoid wearing the oxygen during physical activity.
• D. Store oxygen tanks in a cool, dark place.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy is not to smoke while using oxygen. Smoking near oxygen can cause a fire or explosion due to the flammable nature of oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because using oxygen at the highest flow rate tolerated without medical supervision can be harmful. Choice C is the correct answer as wearing oxygen during physical activity can increase the risk of oxygen combustion. Choice D is not the most important instruction; while storing oxygen tanks properly is essential, the immediate safety concern is the risk of fire due to smoking near oxygen.

4. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
• B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
• C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
• D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.

5. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

• A. Decreased sexual libido
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Quickening
• D. Nocturia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

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