Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important information for the nurse to provide to a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?

• A. Take the medication with food
• B. Avoid foods high in tyramine
• C. Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately
• D. Expect to see improvement within 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' When starting an SSRI, clients should be informed to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly. SSRIs can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially in the early stages of treatment. This information is crucial for the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding foods high in tyramine, and expecting immediate improvement within 24 hours are not the most critical pieces of information for a client starting on an SSRI.

2. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Ask the client why the bath was refused
• B. Ask family members to encourage the client to bathe
• C. Explain the importance of good hygiene to the client
• D. Reschedule the bath for the following day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusal can guide appropriate interventions, respecting client autonomy while addressing any underlying issues. Choice B is not the best course of action as involving family members may not address the client's specific concerns. Choice C, while important, may not directly address the immediate refusal to bathe. Choice D does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal and may not lead to a resolution.

3. A client is admitted with Atrial Fibrillation and is administered amiodarone (Cordarone). What therapeutic response should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm
• B. Pulse oximetry readings within normal range during activity
• C. Peripheral pulse points with adequate capillary refill
• D. Increase in exercise tolerance without shortness of breath

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm. Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythm in clients with atrial fibrillation. It works by slowing down the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heartbeat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the therapeutic response expected from administering amiodarone in a client with atrial fibrillation. Pulse oximetry readings, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and exercise tolerance are important assessments but are not the primary therapeutic goal of using amiodarone in this situation.

4. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

5. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

• A. Decreased sexual libido
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Quickening
• D. Nocturia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

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